HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Complete a fall-risk assessment.
- B. Educate the client and family about fall risks.
- C. Eliminate safety hazards from the client’s environment.
- D. Ensure the client uses assistive aids in their possession.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be to eliminate safety hazards from the client's environment as it directly reduces the risk of falls. Addressing environmental hazards is an immediate and crucial step in preventing falls. While completing a fall-risk assessment is important to understand the client's risk factors, educating the client and family about fall risks is essential for prevention, and ensuring the use of assistive aids is crucial for safety, eliminating safety hazards takes precedence as it directly mitigates the risk of falls.
2. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating the breath sounds of an adult client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest.
- B. Ask the client to breathe in deeply through their nose.
- C. Instruct the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward.
- D. Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing breath sounds in a client with pneumonia, the nurse should follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation of breath sounds across different lung fields. Asking the client to breathe in deeply through their nose (Choice B) is not necessary for assessing breath sounds. Instructing the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward (Choice C) is not directly related to assessing breath sounds and may not be required. Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest (Choice D) is not the correct technique for auscultating breath sounds, as the diaphragm should be used for this purpose.
3. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing would most accurately be described by a Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations. Choice A is incorrect as 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as 'appears to be sleeping' is not an accurate description of a non-responsive state. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than stated in the scenario.
4. How can self-injury be prevented when lifting a bedside cabinet?
- A. Standing close to the cabinet when lifting.
- B. Bending at the waist when lifting.
- C. Twisting while lifting to balance the load.
- D. Lifting with a quick motion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to prevent self-injury when lifting a bedside cabinet is by standing close to the cabinet. By standing close, the individual can maintain better control and balance while lifting, reducing the risk of injury. Bending at the waist when lifting (choice B) can strain the back and lead to injury. Twisting while lifting (choice C) can also cause strain and imbalance. Lifting with a quick motion (choice D) can increase the risk of injury due to lack of control and improper body mechanics.
5. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer potassium chloride intravenously to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is most important?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate
- B. Check the client's urine output
- C. Administer the potassium chloride as a rapid IV push
- D. Dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution. Potassium chloride should never be administered as a rapid IV push as it can lead to severe complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. Diluting the medication and administering it slowly helps reduce the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) and checking urine output (Choice B) are important aspects of patient assessment but not the most crucial when administering potassium chloride. Administering potassium chloride as a rapid IV push (Choice C) is dangerous and can result in serious harm to the client.
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