HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Complete a fall-risk assessment.
- B. Educate the client and family about fall risks.
- C. Eliminate safety hazards from the client’s environment.
- D. Ensure the client uses assistive aids in their possession.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be to eliminate safety hazards from the client's environment as it directly reduces the risk of falls. Addressing environmental hazards is an immediate and crucial step in preventing falls. While completing a fall-risk assessment is important to understand the client's risk factors, educating the client and family about fall risks is essential for prevention, and ensuring the use of assistive aids is crucial for safety, eliminating safety hazards takes precedence as it directly mitigates the risk of falls.
2. In a mass casualty scenario at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?
- A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
- B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body
- C. A preschooler with 1 lower leg fracture and the other leg with an upper leg fracture
- D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a mass casualty scenario, the triage nurse would prioritize the toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body for treatment last. This child is categorized as 'expectant' due to the extensive injuries, which are unlikely to be survivable even with immediate treatment. The other choices describe injuries that are serious but have a higher likelihood of survival with appropriate and timely intervention. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have increased intracranial pressure requiring urgent evaluation, the preschooler with leg fractures can be stabilized and treated effectively, and the school-age child with singed hair likely has superficial burns which can be managed promptly.
3. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving IV therapy and reports pain in the arm, chills, and 'not feeling well.' The nurse notes warmth, edema, induration, and red streaking on the client’s arm close to the IV insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
- A. Obtain a specimen for culture.
- B. Apply a warm compress.
- C. Administer analgesics.
- D. Discontinue the infusion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Discontinuing the infusion is the first step in addressing potential complications such as phlebitis or infection. It is crucial to prevent further infusion-related damage by stopping the source of the issue. Obtaining a specimen for culture (Choice A) can be considered later to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) or administering analgesics (Choice C) may provide comfort but do not address the underlying issue of infection or phlebitis, which requires immediate intervention by discontinuing the infusion.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who reports a pain level of 5 on a scale from 0-10. The client informs the nurse that pain medication is not an option for managing pain. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. I'm sure it will work if you just give it a chance.
- B. You may take any herbal remedies you bring from home.
- C. Why do you think pain medication is not going to help you?
- D. Would you like me to give you a back massage?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client has expressed that pain medication is not an option for managing pain. Offering alternative pain relief options like a back massage is appropriate because it respects the client's preferences and provides a non-pharmacological intervention to help alleviate pain. Choices A, B, and C are not as suitable: A may come across as dismissive of the client's decision, B may not be safe as herbal remedies can interact with medical treatments, and C focuses more on questioning the client's decision rather than providing immediate comfort.
5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.
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