Nursing Elites

1. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

• A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
• B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
• C. Morphine 2 mg IV
• D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has heart failure. The client has gained weight since her last visit, and her ankles are edematous. Which of the following findings by the nurse is another clinical manifestation of fluid volume excess?

• A. Bounding pulse
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Weak pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A bounding pulse is indicative of fluid volume excess. In this case, the client's weight gain and edematous ankles already suggest fluid volume overload. A bounding pulse occurs due to increased blood volume and pressure. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of fluid volume excess. Decreased blood pressure, dry mucous membranes, and weak pulse are more commonly associated with conditions such as dehydration or hypovolemia, where there is a decrease in fluid volume rather than an excess.

3. While caring for a client receiving parenteral fluid therapy via a peripheral IV catheter, after which of the following observations should the nurse remove the IV catheter?

• A. Swelling and coolness are observed at the IV site.
• B. The client reports mild discomfort at the insertion site.
• C. The infusion rate is slower than expected.
• D. The IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Swelling and coolness at the IV site can indicate complications such as infiltration, which can lead to tissue damage or fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues. Prompt removal of the IV catheter is essential to prevent further complications. The client reporting mild discomfort at the insertion site is common during IV therapy and does not necessarily warrant catheter removal unless there are signs of infiltration. A slower than expected infusion rate may not always necessitate IV catheter removal; the nurse should troubleshoot potential causes such as kinks in the tubing or pump malfunctions first. Just because the IV catheter is no longer needed for treatment does not automatically mean it should be removed; proper assessment and monitoring for complications are still essential.

4. A client with a terminal illness is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates that the client's death is imminent?

• A. Cold extremities
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Increased level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cold extremities are a common sign observed in clients nearing death. This occurs due to decreased blood circulation as the body's systems begin to shut down. Cold extremities indicate poor perfusion and reduced function of vital organs. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not typically seen in clients approaching death; instead, a decreased appetite is more common. Elevated blood pressure (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients nearing the end of life, as blood pressure tends to decrease. An increased level of consciousness (Choice D) is also not indicative of imminent death, as clients near death often experience decreased level of consciousness or become unresponsive.

5. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increased serum glucose
• B. Decreased albumin
• C. Decreased potassium
• D. Increased sodium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

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