a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10 after reviewing the clients medication
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. When the nurse prepares to change the dressing, the client says it hurts. Which intervention is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before the dressing change is the priority action to help manage the client's pain effectively. This intervention ensures that the client is comfortable during the procedure. Changing the dressing quickly may cause more discomfort to the client. Providing reassurance is important but does not address the immediate pain concern. Using a less painful dressing technique may be helpful, but administering pain medication first is the priority to address the client's pain promptly.

3. A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the LPN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN should monitor potassium levels closely while the client is taking furosemide (Lasix) due to the medication's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring potassium in this context. Calcium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are not typically affected by furosemide and are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.

4. During the initial physical assessment of a newly admitted client with a pressure ulcer, an LPN observes that the client's skin is dry and scaly. The nurse applies emollients and reinforces the dressing on the pressure ulcer. Legally, were the nurse's actions adequate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Providing supportive nursing care, such as applying emollients and reinforcing the dressing on the pressure ulcer, meets the immediate needs of the client and is in line with legal and professional standards. Option A is incorrect because increasing activity may not be directly related to the immediate skin care needs of the client. Option C is incorrect as debridement might not be immediately necessary based on the initial assessment. Option D is incorrect as nurses are often authorized to initiate treatments within their scope of practice without waiting for healthcare provider prescriptions, especially for routine care like skin moisturization and dressing reinforcement.

5. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.

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