HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?
- A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
- B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
- C. Morphine 2 mg IV
- D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.
2. A client reports constipation, and a nurse is providing dietary teaching. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Macaroni and cheese
- B. One medium apple with skin
- C. One cup of plain yogurt
- D. Roast chicken and white rice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: One medium apple with skin. Foods high in fiber, like apples with skin, are recommended to relieve constipation due to their fiber content, which aids in bowel regularity. Macaroni and cheese, yogurt, and roast chicken with white rice do not provide as much fiber and are less effective in alleviating constipation. While yogurt can sometimes contain probiotics that support gut health, it is not as effective in treating constipation as high-fiber foods like apples.
3. A client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of congestive heart failure. Which of the following assessments would the nurse expect to be consistent with this problem?
- A. Chest pain
- B. Pallor
- C. Inspiratory crackles
- D. Heart murmur
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inspiratory crackles are a common finding in patients with congestive heart failure due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to crackling sounds during inspiration. Chest pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like angina or myocardial infarction and is not a typical symptom of congestive heart failure. Pallor (Choice B) is a general symptom of various conditions and not specific to congestive heart failure. While a heart murmur (Choice D) may be heard in some cases of congestive heart failure, it is not as consistent as inspiratory crackles in indicating the condition.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?
- A. 42 gtt/min
- B. 83 gtt/min
- C. 125 gtt/min
- D. 250 gtt/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.
5. A client who is postoperative is using an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?
- A. Side-lying
- B. Supine
- C. Semi-Fowler’s
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct position for a postoperative client using an incentive spirometer is the Semi-Fowler’s position. Placing the client in Semi-Fowler’s or high-Fowler’s position maximizes lung expansion and the effectiveness of the incentive spirometer. Side-lying may not provide optimal lung expansion. The supine position is not ideal for postoperative clients using incentive spirometers as it may limit lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential complications postoperatively.
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