a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10 after reviewing the clients medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

2. While assisting a client with a meal, the client suddenly grabs at their neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when a client suddenly grabs at their neck and appears frightened is to ask if they are choking. This allows the nurse to gather more information from the client directly. Performing abdominal thrusts (choice B) should only be done if the client is unable to speak, cough, or breathe. Calling for emergency help (choice C) should be done after assessing the situation and confirming choking. Checking the client's airway (choice D) is important but should come after confirming that the client is choking.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

4. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

5. A healthcare professional is planning to perform ear irrigation on an adult client with impacted cerumen. Which of the following should the professional plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Positioning the client with the affected side down following irrigation is crucial as it helps facilitate drainage of the dislodged cerumen and any remaining irrigation solution. This position allows gravity to assist in the removal of the loosened debris. Wearing sterile gloves is a standard precaution in healthcare procedures to prevent infection but is not specific to ear irrigation. Using body-temperature water or a solution at a slightly warmer temperature is recommended to prevent vertigo and discomfort, so using cool fluid is incorrect. Pulling the pinna upward and backward, not downward, straightens the ear canal for adults to facilitate the irrigation process, making choice D incorrect.

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