Nursing Elites

1. During new employee orientation, a nurse is explaining how to prevent IV infections. Which of the following statements by an orientee indicates understanding of the preventive strategies?

• A. “I will leave the IV catheter in place after the client completes the course of IV antibiotics.”
• B. “As long as I am working with the same client, I can use the same IV catheter for my second insertion attempt.”
• C. “If my client needs to use the restroom, it would be safer to disconnect their IV infusion as long as I clean the injection port thoroughly with an antiseptic swab.”
• D. “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.” This statement demonstrates an understanding of preventive strategies for IV infections. Suspecting and replacing any contaminated IV catheter during insertion is crucial to prevent infections and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leaving the IV catheter in place after completing antibiotics, reusing the same IV catheter, and disconnecting the IV infusion without proper precautions can increase the risk of infections. Therefore, option D is the best choice for preventing IV infections.

2. A client receives the influenza vaccine in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the immunization, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and difficulty breathing. What should be the first action in the sequence of care for this client?

• A. Maintain the airway
• B. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered
• C. Monitor for hypotension with shock
• D. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction, a severe allergic response. The priority action in an anaphylactic reaction is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine helps counteract the severe allergic response, improves breathing difficulties, and maintains airway and circulation. Administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition. Options A, C, and D may be necessary in the management of anaphylaxis, but the immediate priority is to administer epinephrine to address the life-threatening symptoms.

3. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to provide chest physiotherapy for a client who has left lower lobe atelectasis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position.
• B. Position the client in an upright sitting position.
• C. Administer bronchodilators after the procedure.
• D. Perform chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg's position is the appropriate action when providing chest physiotherapy for a client with left lower lobe atelectasis. This position helps mobilize secretions from the lower lobes of the lungs, aiding in their clearance. Trendelenburg's position promotes drainage from the affected area. Positioning the client in an upright sitting position (Choice B) would not facilitate the drainage of secretions from the affected lobe. Administering bronchodilators after the procedure (Choice C) is not directly related to chest physiotherapy and the treatment of atelectasis. Performing chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat (Choice D) may not effectively target the lower lobes where the atelectasis is located.

5. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

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