Nursing Elites

1. During new employee orientation, a nurse is explaining how to prevent IV infections. Which of the following statements by an orientee indicates understanding of the preventive strategies?

• A. “I will leave the IV catheter in place after the client completes the course of IV antibiotics.”
• B. “As long as I am working with the same client, I can use the same IV catheter for my second insertion attempt.”
• C. “If my client needs to use the restroom, it would be safer to disconnect their IV infusion as long as I clean the injection port thoroughly with an antiseptic swab.”
• D. “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.” This statement demonstrates an understanding of preventive strategies for IV infections. Suspecting and replacing any contaminated IV catheter during insertion is crucial to prevent infections and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leaving the IV catheter in place after completing antibiotics, reusing the same IV catheter, and disconnecting the IV infusion without proper precautions can increase the risk of infections. Therefore, option D is the best choice for preventing IV infections.

2. While being prepared for transport to the operating room, a client scheduled for hysterectomy informs the nurse that she no longer wants to have surgery. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the provider about the client's decision
• B. Proceed with the transport
• C. Prepare the surgical site
• D. Document the client’s statement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the provider about the client's decision. By informing the provider, they can discuss the client's change in decision, explore the reasons behind it, and determine the appropriate course of action. Proceeding with the transport (Choice B) without addressing the client's concerns would not respect the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Preparing the surgical site (Choice C) would be premature and inappropriate if the client no longer wishes to proceed with the surgery. While documenting the client's statement (Choice D) is important for documentation purposes, the immediate priority is to involve the provider in the decision-making process.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of asthma. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Wheezing
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Cough with sputum production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most concerning assessment finding in a client with asthma is the use of accessory muscles. This indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, which could signify respiratory distress. Wheezing, choice A, is a common finding in asthma and indicates narrowed airways but may not necessarily imply immediate distress. Shortness of breath, choice B, is also common in asthma but may not be as concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production, choice D, can occur in asthma exacerbations but may not be as critical as signs of increased work of breathing like the use of accessory muscles.

4. The healthcare provider is providing postoperative care to a client who had a submucosal resection (SMR) for a deviated septum. The healthcare provider should monitor for what complication associated with this type of surgery?

• A. Occipital headache
• B. Periorbital crepitus
• C. Expectoration of blood
• D. Changes in vocalization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Expectoration of blood is a potential complication following SMR surgery, as it may indicate bleeding postoperatively. In contrast, occipital headache (choice A) is not a common complication associated with SMR surgery. Periorbital crepitus (choice B) is more related to facial fractures or certain infections rather than SMR surgery. Changes in vocalization (choice D) are not typically associated with complications following SMR surgery.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a surgical wound. Which of the following laboratory values places the client at risk for poor wound healing?

• A. Serum albumin 3 g/dL
• B. Total lymphocyte count 2400/mm3
• C. HCT 42%
• D. HGB 16 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin 3 g/dL. Low levels of serum albumin indicate poor nutritional status and can impair wound healing. Total lymphocyte count, HCT, and HGB levels are not directly related to wound healing and do not pose a significant risk for poor wound healing in this context. Total lymphocyte count reflects the immune status, HCT measures the percentage of red blood cells in blood, and HGB measures the amount of hemoglobin in blood.

Similar Questions