Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform mouth care for an unresponsive client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Raise the level of the bed
• B. Administer mouth care with the client in a supine position
• C. Use a tongue depressor to open the mouth
• D. Place the client in a prone position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Raising the bed level is the correct action to facilitate easier access for mouth care in an unresponsive client. This position enhances the safety and comfort of both the client and the healthcare provider. Administering mouth care with the client in a supine position (lying flat on their back) can increase the risk of aspiration. Using a tongue depressor to open the mouth is not recommended as it can cause discomfort and potential injury. Placing the client in a prone position (lying face down) is contraindicated for mouth care and can compromise the client's airway.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism. Which finding should the nurse expect to observe in this client?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Cold intolerance
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight loss is a common finding in clients with hyperthyroidism due to increased metabolic activity. Hyperthyroidism leads to an overactive thyroid gland, which results in an increased metabolic rate and often leads to weight loss despite a normal or increased appetite. Cold intolerance (Choice B) is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, where the body's processes slow down. Bradycardia (Choice C) is a slow heart rate, which is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism; rather, tachycardia or an increased heart rate is more common. Dry skin (Choice D) is also not a typical finding in hyperthyroidism, as the skin is more likely to be warm and moist due to increased metabolic activity.

3. Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 0.5 tablet
• B. 1 tablet
• C. 1.5 tablets
• D. 2 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

5. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

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