Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication prescription, which reads, 'digoxin 0.25 by mouth every day.' Which of the following components of the prescription should the healthcare professional question?

• A. the medication
• B. the route
• C. the dose
• D. the frequency

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional should question the dose indicated in the prescription. In this case, '0.25' is incomplete without a unit of measurement, such as mg (milligrams). Without a specified unit, the dose lacks the necessary information for accurate administration. Choices A, B, and D are not incorrect components to question in medication prescriptions; however, in this scenario, the incompleteness of the dose is the most critical concern that needs clarification to ensure safe and effective medication administration.

2. The nurse is preparing to assist a newly admitted client with personal hygiene measures. The nurse wants to assess the client's gag reflex. Which action should the nurse include?

• A. Offer small sips of water through a straw
• B. Place tongue blade on back half of tongue
• C. Use a penlight to observe back of the oral cavity
• D. Auscultate breath sounds after the client swallows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include when assessing the client's gag reflex is to place a tongue blade on the back half of the tongue. This method effectively tests the gag reflex without causing discomfort. Choice A is incorrect because offering small sips of water through a straw does not assess the gag reflex. Choice C is incorrect as using a penlight to observe the back of the oral cavity does not directly assess the gag reflex. Choice D is incorrect since auscultating breath sounds after the client swallows does not evaluate the gag reflex.

3. A 2-year-old child is brought to the health care provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for 2 days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement?

• A. Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours
• B. Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids
• C. Give bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated
• D. Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing mild diarrhea in a 2-year-old child, it is important to maintain their regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Choice A of placing the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours may not provide adequate nutrition and can lead to further electrolyte imbalances. Choice C of giving bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated is a part of the BRAT diet, which is not recommended as the primary approach anymore due to its limited nutritional value. Choice D of placing the child NPO for 24 hours and then rehydrating with milk and water is not appropriate as it can worsen dehydration and delay recovery. Therefore, the best option is to continue the child's regular diet while incorporating oral rehydration fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain nutritional status.

4. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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