Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving discharge instructions for a new antihypertensive medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will stop taking the medication if I experience dizziness.
• B. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
• C. I will avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. I will rise slowly from a sitting to a standing position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stopping antihypertensive medication abruptly can lead to rebound hypertension, which can be dangerous. Clients should never discontinue their medication without consulting their healthcare provider first. Choice B is correct because monitoring blood pressure is essential when taking antihypertensive medication to ensure it stays within the target range. Choice C is correct as alcohol can potentiate the hypotensive effects of antihypertensive medications. Choice D is correct as orthostatic hypotension can occur, so rising slowly helps prevent dizziness and falls. Therefore, choice A is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching.

2. In planning care for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to

• A. Stabilize alveolar surface tension
• B. Maintain alveolar surface tension
• C. Promote normal pulmonary blood flow
• D. Regulate intra-cardiac pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is often caused by a deficiency in surfactant, a substance that helps maintain alveolar surface tension. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, making it difficult for the infant to oxygenate effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stabilizing alveolar surface tension is not the issue, promoting normal pulmonary blood flow and regulating intra-cardiac pressure are not directly related to the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.

3. The healthcare provider retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM every 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare provider administer to the client?

• A. 0.75 mL
• B. 1 mL
• C. 0.8 mL
• D. 1.2 mL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct dosage calculation is to divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication to determine the volume needed. In this case, 3 mg (prescribed dose) divided by 4 mg/mL (concentration) equals 0.75 mL. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 0.75 mL of hydromorphone to the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume based on the prescription and concentration provided.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication commonly used in clients with chronic kidney disease to stimulate red blood cell production. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy. Hemoglobin levels reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and indicate if the medication is successfully treating anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Option A, serum creatinine, is a marker of kidney function, not the primary indicator of epoetin alfa effectiveness. Option C, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), is a measure of kidney function and hydration status. Option D, platelet count, assesses clotting ability and is unrelated to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia in chronic kidney disease.

5. An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for the administration of bolus tube feedings?

• A. Prone.
• B. Fowler's.
• C. Sims'.
• D. Supine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fowler's position. Placing the client in Fowler's position, with the head of the bed elevated to 45-60 degrees, reduces the risk of aspiration during bolus enteral feedings by facilitating the flow of the feeding into the stomach. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down, which is not suitable for feeding. Sims' position (choice C) is a side-lying position used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for feeding. Supine position (choice D) is lying flat on the back and is not optimal for reducing the risk of aspiration during bolus tube feedings.

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