HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Liver damage
- B. Renal failure
- C. Gastric bleeding
- D. Heart attack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.
2. A client is prescribed a buccal medication. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to take this medication?
- A. “I will first dissolve the tablet in water.”
- B. “I will insert the tablet between my cheek and teeth.”
- C. “I will place the tablet under my tongue.”
- D. “I will chew the tablet.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct way to take buccal medications is to insert the tablet between the cheek and gums where it will dissolve slowly. Option A is incorrect because buccal medications are not meant to be dissolved in water. Option C is incorrect as sublingual medications are placed under the tongue. Option D is incorrect because chewing a buccal tablet is not the correct administration method.
3. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports diarrhea and decreased urination for 4 days. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess the client's skin turgor?
- A. Grasp a skin fold on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note whether it springs back
- B. Pinch the skin on the back of the hand and observe for elasticity
- C. Assess the skin turgor on the abdomen by pinching the skin
- D. Check the skin turgor by pressing on the forearm and observing the rebound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To assess skin turgor, the nurse should grasp a skin fold on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note whether it springs back. This method is preferred for older adults and in cases of significant fluid imbalance. Option B is incorrect as assessing skin turgor on the back of the hand is not the standard assessment site for skin turgor. Option C is incorrect as the abdomen is not the typical area for assessing skin turgor; the chest under the clavicle is a more accurate site. Option D is incorrect as pressing on the forearm is not the appropriate site for evaluating skin turgor; the chest under the clavicle is the recommended location for this assessment.
4. During a complete bed bath for a client, after removing the gown and placing a bath blanket over the body, which of the following areas should the nurse wash first?
- A. Face
- B. Feet
- C. Chest
- D. Arms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When performing a complete bed bath, it is essential to wash the face first. Washing the face initially helps to maintain the client's privacy and comfort. Additionally, starting with the face prevents re-contamination of already cleaned areas. Washing the feet first (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to potential contamination of the upper body parts. Starting with the chest (Choice C) or arms (Choice D) is not recommended due to the risk of water dripping onto the client's face, causing discomfort and compromising privacy.
5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
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