reviewing clients fluid and electrolytes status what should nurse report to provider
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Study Guide

1. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.

2. At the time of the first dressing change, the client refuses to look at her mastectomy incision. The LPN tells the client that the incision is healing well, but the client refuses to talk about it. What would be an appropriate response to this client's silence?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, it's essential to acknowledge and respect the client's feelings and choices. Choice C is the most appropriate response as it validates the client's decision not to discuss the surgery while offering support and understanding. Giving the client space and letting them know you will be available when they are ready shows empathy and fosters trust. Choices A and B do not respect the client's autonomy and may come across as dismissive or pressuring. Choice D assumes the client needs advice from someone who has had a similar experience without considering the client's current emotional state and preferences.

3. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

4. When assessing a client reporting increased pain after physical therapy, which question should the nurse ask to evaluate the quality of the pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing the quality of a client's pain is whether the pain is sharp or dull. This helps in understanding the characteristics of the pain being experienced. Choice B, asking if the pain radiates to other areas, focuses more on pain distribution rather than quality. Choice C, inquiring if the pain increases with movement, pertains to aggravating factors rather than pain quality. Choice D, requesting the client to rate pain on a scale of 1 to 10, is related to pain intensity rather than quality.

5. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.

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