HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. A charge nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about fetal monitoring during labor. Which of the following findings should the charge nurse instruct the staff members to report to the provider?
- A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds
- B. Contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart
- C. Absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate
- D. Fetal heart rate is 140/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds are prolonged, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and requires immediate intervention. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure timely management and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice B, contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart, is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate, is a reassuring finding suggesting fetal well-being. Choice D, a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is also normal for a fetus and does not typically require immediate reporting unless it deviates significantly from the baseline or is accompanied by other concerning signs.
2. _________ is self-propulsion.
- A. Mitosis
- B. Meiosis
- C. Motility
- D. Mutation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Motility.' Motility refers to the ability of cells or organisms to move by themselves, often through the use of specialized structures like flagella or cilia. Mitosis (Choice A) and Meiosis (Choice B) are processes related to cell division and genetic recombination, respectively, not self-propulsion. Mutation (Choice D) refers to changes in the DNA sequence and is not related to self-propulsion.
3. Examination reveals that the laboring client's cervix is dilated to 2 centimeters, 70% effaced with the presenting part at -2 station. The client tells the nurse, 'I need my epidural now, this hurts.' The nurse's response to the client is based on which information?
- A. The client will need to be catheterized before the epidural can be administered.
- B. Administering an epidural at this point would slow down the labor process.
- C. The client should be dilated to at least 8 centimeters before receiving an epidural.
- D. The baby needs to be at a zero station before an epidural can be administered.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering an epidural too early in labor, especially at 2 cm dilation, can slow down the progress of labor. It is usually recommended to wait until labor is more established. Choice A is incorrect because catheterization is not a prerequisite for epidural administration. Choice C is incorrect as waiting until 8 cm dilation is not a standard requirement for epidural administration. Choice D is incorrect because the baby's station being at zero is not a strict criterion for epidural administration.
4. Which information regarding the care of antepartum women with cardiac conditions is most important for the nurse to understand?
- A. Stress on the heart is greatest in the first trimester and the last 2 weeks before labor.
- B. Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and any activity that causes even minor symptoms.
- C. Women with class III cardiac disease should get 8 to 10 hours of sleep every day and limit housework, shopping, and exercise.
- D. Women with class I cardiac disease need bed rest through most of the pregnancy and face the possibility of hospitalization near term.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Class II cardiac disease is symptomatic with ordinary activity. Women in this category need to avoid heavy exertion and limit regular activities as symptoms dictate. Stress is greatest between weeks 28 and 32 of gestation, when hemodynamic changes reach their maximum. Class III cardiac disease is symptomatic with less-than-ordinary activity. These women need bed rest most of the day and face the possibility of hospitalization near term. Class I cardiac disease is asymptomatic at normal levels of activity. These women can perform limited normal activities with discretion, although they still need a good amount of sleep.
5. A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
- B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
- C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
- D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.
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