the healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg im stat morphine comes in 8 mg per ml how many ml should the lpnlvn administer
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet

1. The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's health record and notes a new prescription for lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily. The healthcare professional should identify this as which of the following types of prescription?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription, such as lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily, is administered on a regular schedule with or without a termination date. It is a standard, ongoing prescription for maintenance therapy. Choice A, 'Single,' would typically refer to a one-time prescription. Choice B, 'Stat,' is used for prescriptions that are needed immediately or in emergency situations. Choice D, 'Now,' is not a common prescription type designation and is not applicable in this context.

3. When performing nasotracheal suctioning on a client with a respiratory infection, what technique should be used?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for nasotracheal suctioning is to apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter. This method helps prevent damage to the mucosa and is the recommended approach. Continuous suction during insertion (choice B) can cause trauma to the airway lining. Applying suction only during insertion (choice C) is not sufficient for effective removal of secretions. Inserting the catheter while the client is exhaling (choice D) does not follow the standard procedure for nasotracheal suctioning.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

5. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

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