Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 0.5 ml
• B. 1 ml
• C. 1.5 ml
• D. 2 ml

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.

2. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed. Which symptom would be most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Dizziness
• D. Chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest pain in a client with hypertension is the most concerning symptom as it may indicate a myocardial infarction or other serious cardiac event related to hypertension. Immediate intervention is required to address potential life-threatening conditions. Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness are common symptoms associated with hypertension but are not typically indicative of an acute cardiac event requiring urgent attention.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is admitting a client. Which of the following information should the nurse document in the client's record first?

• A. Assessment
• B. Plan of care
• C. Client history
• D. Medication list

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. When admitting a client, the nurse should document assessment data first. This information is crucial as it provides a baseline for planning care and treatment. By documenting the assessment initially, the nurse can accurately identify the client's needs and prioritize care. Choice B, Plan of care, would be developed based on the assessment findings, so it should come after the initial assessment. Choices C and D, Client history and Medication list, are important but would typically be documented after the assessment to ensure that the most current and relevant information is captured in the client's record.

4. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. What transmission precautions are necessary?

• A. Droplet
• B. Contact
• C. Airborne
• D. Standard

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is primarily spread through droplet transmission, which occurs when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Therefore, the correct precaution for caring for a client with pharyngeal diphtheria is droplet precautions. Droplet precautions help prevent the transmission of respiratory pathogens over short distances via respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread through direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that spread through small droplets suspended in the air. Standard precautions are basic infection prevention practices applying to all patient care.

5. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?

• A. Absence of a pulse
• B. Presence of a pulse
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.

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