the healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg im stat morphine comes in 8 mg per ml how many ml should the lpnlvn administer
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet

1. The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.

2. A healthcare provider is witnessing a client sign an informed consent form for surgery. Which of the following describes what the healthcare provider is affirming by this action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a healthcare provider witnesses a client signing an informed consent form for surgery, they are affirming that the signature on the form belongs to the client. This is crucial for ensuring patient autonomy and informed decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while it is important for the client to understand the risks of surgery, be aware of postoperative care instructions, and have an opportunity to ask questions, these elements are not specifically affirmed by the healthcare provider witnessing the signature.

3. A client is immobile due to a cast, and a nurse is assisting in the use of a fracture bedpan. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when using a fracture bedpan for an immobile client is to place the shallow end of the pan under the client's buttocks. This positioning helps in proper collection of feces without causing discomfort or injury. Encouraging the client to try to defecate for 20 minutes (Choice B) is inappropriate and unrealistic, as defecation should not be forced or timed. Keeping the bed flat (Choice C) is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed can help promote proper positioning for bedpan use. Hyperextending the client's back (Choice D) is contraindicated and can lead to discomfort and potential injury to the client.

4. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

5. A client with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and wheezing. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and wheezing, the priority nursing action is to administer a bronchodilator. This intervention helps relieve bronchospasm and improve the client's breathing. Obtaining a peak flow reading can provide additional information but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Providing supplemental oxygen may be needed but addressing the bronchospasm with a bronchodilator takes precedence. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is important but not as urgent as administering a bronchodilator to address the breathing difficulty.

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