HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?
- A. 0.5 ml
- B. 1 ml
- C. 1.5 ml
- D. 2 ml
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.
2. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
- A. 1/2 tablet.
- B. 1 tablet.
- C. 1 1/2 tablets.
- D. 2 tablets.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.
3. During a follow-up visit, a home health nurse notices that a client with a gastrostomy tube, who receives intermittent feedings and medications, has developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?
- A. The client’s caregiver washes out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water.
- B. The client’s caregiver washes out the feeding bag with hot water every 24 hours.
- C. The client’s caregiver changes the feeding bag every 48 hours.
- D. The client’s caregiver adds water to the formula before administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Washing out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water can lead to bacterial growth due to inadequate cleaning, potentially causing diarrhea. Hot water, as in choice B, can also promote bacterial growth, which is not desirable. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours, like in choice C, is within an acceptable timeframe and is unlikely to be a cause of diarrhea. Adding water to the formula before administration, as in choice D, is a common practice to dilute the formula but is not typically associated with causing diarrhea in this scenario.
4. A nurse discovers a small paper fire in a trash can in a client’s bathroom. The client has been taken to safety and the alarm has been activated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Open the windows in the client’s room to allow smoke to escape.
- B. Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire.
- C. Remove all electrical equipment from the client’s room.
- D. Place wet towels along the base of the door to the client’s room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire. Using a class C fire extinguisher is appropriate for electrical fires, which can include fires involving electrical equipment or appliances. In this scenario, a paper fire in a trash can in the client's bathroom could potentially involve electrical components, making a class C fire extinguisher the most suitable choice. Option A, opening the windows, may help with ventilation but does not address the fire directly. Option C, removing electrical equipment, is a precautionary measure but does not address the immediate fire hazard. Option D, placing wet towels along the base of the door, is a strategy to prevent smoke from entering the room but does not extinguish the fire.
5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum albumin
- D. Serum sodium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.
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