a client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain the healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needewhich
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Test

1. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.

2. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) (D) is the most concerning finding for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as it may indicate an infection, which poses a significant risk. Monitoring blood glucose level (A), blood pressure (B), and serum albumin (C) are also important, but an elevated temperature suggests a potential serious complication that requires immediate attention.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes (D) are a common clinical finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In dehydration, there is insufficient fluid in the body, leading to dry mucous membranes due to decreased saliva production. Bounding pulse (A) is associated with fluid volume excess, not deficit. Bradycardia (B) and oliguria (C) are not typical clinical findings of fluid volume deficit but may be seen in fluid volume excess or other conditions.

4. The healthcare provider selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the healthcare provider use to identify placement of the IV access?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large, superficial vein located on the radial side of the forearm, making it the preferred site for IV access. It is often the best choice for insertion of an IV catheter due to its accessibility and low risk of complications, such as infiltration. Documenting the use of the right cephalic vein for IV access is crucial for accurate and safe patient care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the left brachial vein, the dorsal side of the right wrist, and the right upper extremity are not typically preferred sites for IV catheter insertion and may not provide optimal access or outcomes.

5. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor carefully for a client who has had an NG tube for suctioning for the past week?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should carefully monitor serum sodium levels for a client with an NG tube on suction for an extended period due to potential fluid loss and the risk of developing hyponatremia, an electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia can occur as a result of continual suctioning leading to fluid loss, making it crucial to monitor sodium levels to prevent complications associated with low sodium levels. Monitoring white blood cell count, albumin, or calcium is not directly related to the impact of NG tube suction on fluid and electrolyte balance, so these values are not the priority in this scenario.

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