Nursing Elites

1. While auscultating the anterior chest of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, a nurse listens to the audio clip of breath sounds through her stethoscope. What type of breath sounds does the nurse hear?

• A. Crackles
• B. Rhonchi
• C. Friction rub
• D. Normal breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Normal breath sounds. In the scenario described, the nurse hears normal bronchovesicular breath sounds, which are moderate in intensity and resemble blowing as air moves through the larger airways during inspiration and expiration. Crackles (choice A) are typically heard in conditions like heart failure or pneumonia and are not present in this case. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched, continuous sounds often associated with conditions like chronic bronchitis or bronchiectasis. Friction rub (choice C) is a grating sound usually heard in conditions like pleurisy or pericarditis, which is not the case here where normal breath sounds are heard.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to perform denture care for a client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Pull down and out at the back of the upper denture to remove.
• B. Brush the dentures with a toothbrush and denture cleaner.
• C. Rinse the dentures with hot water after cleaning them.
• D. Place the dentures in a clean, dry storage container after cleaning them.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to brush the dentures with a toothbrush and denture cleaner. This action ensures effective cleaning of the dentures. Dentures should be rinsed with cool or lukewarm water, not hot water, to prevent damage. Placing the dentures in a clean, dry storage container is not the immediate next step after cleaning; they should be kept moist to prevent warping.

3. During an eye assessment, what action should the nurse take to assess a client's extraocular eye movements?

• A. Position the client 6.1 m (20 ft) away from the Snellen chart
• B. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye
• D. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 inches) away from the client's eye

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action to assess extraocular eye movements effectively. This technique evaluates the function of the six extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Positioning the client 6.1 m away from the Snellen chart is more relevant for visual acuity testing. Asking the client to cover their right eye during the assessment is not necessary for evaluating extraocular movements. Holding a finger at a specific distance in front of the client's eye is not an appropriate method for assessing extraocular eye movements.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.

5. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

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