Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a stroke requires assistance with morning ADLs. Which of the following interprofessional team members should the nurse consult?

• A. Registered dietitian.
• B. Occupational therapist.
• C. Speech-language pathologist.
• D. Physical therapist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in assisting clients with daily living activities, making them crucial for a stroke patient requiring help with morning activities of daily living (ADLs). While a registered dietitian (A) may provide nutritional guidance, a speech-language pathologist (C) focuses on communication and swallowing disorders, and a physical therapist (D) primarily deals with mobility and physical rehabilitation. However, none of these professionals directly address the specific needs related to ADLs following a stroke as effectively as an occupational therapist.

2. A client who is confused and pulling at the tubing of her IV is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take before requesting a prescription for restraints from the provider?

• A. Place the client in a room away from the nurses’ station.
• B. Limit the client’s visitors.
• C. Give the client washcloths to fold.
• D. Close the door of the client’s room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing the client with washcloths to fold is a non-restrictive intervention that can help distract and engage the client, potentially reducing the need for restraints. This action promotes a therapeutic and calming environment for the confused client. Placing the client in a room away from the nurses’ station (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of confusion and agitation. Limiting the client’s visitors (Choice B) may not directly assist in managing the client's behavior. Closing the door of the client’s room (Choice D) does not actively engage the client in a therapeutic intervention to address the behavior.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?

• A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
• C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
• D. Crepitus around the insertion site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.

4. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has been diagnosed with a stroke. Which intervention will the nurse add to the care plan?

• A. Encourage the patient to perform as many self-care activities as possible.
• B. Provide assistance with a bed bath to promote patient comfort.
• C. Coordinate with physical therapy for gait training.
• D. Instruct the patient to remain on bed rest to prevent fatigue.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the patient to perform as many self-care activities as possible. For a patient who has had a stroke, promoting independence and engaging in self-care activities help maintain mobility and foster a sense of autonomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because providing assistance with a bed bath, coordinating with physical therapy for gait training, or advising bed rest without indications may not be the best interventions for promoting optimal recovery and independence in a stroke patient.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

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