Nursing Elites

1. During an admission history, a client tells a nurse that she is under a lot of stress. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to increase as a result of stress?

• A. Blood glucose - a common stress response.
• B. Intestinal peristalsis - should decrease due to stress.
• C. Peripheral blood vessels diameter - can vary in response to stress.
• D. Urine output - may vary but not a typical stress response.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stress typically increases blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones like cortisol and adrenaline. Elevated blood glucose helps provide energy for the body to cope with the stressful situation. Choice B is incorrect because intestinal peristalsis, the movement of the intestines, is more likely to decrease under stress due to the 'fight or flight' response. Choice C is incorrect as peripheral blood vessels' diameter may vary in response to stress, with both constriction and dilation possible. Choice D is incorrect as urine output may increase or decrease depending on individual differences and the specific stress response, but it is not a typical or direct physiological response to stress.

2. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?

• A. Curling ulcer
• B. Renal shutdown
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Hemolysis of red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has had a stroke, resulting in aphasia and dysphagia. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

• A. Assist the client with a partial bed bath
• B. Measure the client's BP after the nurse administers an antihypertensive medication
• C. Use a communication board to ask what the client wants for lunch
• D. Feed the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assign the task of assisting the client with a partial bed bath to an assistive personnel (AP). APs are trained to provide basic care tasks like hygiene assistance. Options B, C, and D involve more complex tasks such as measuring BP, using a communication board for speech-impaired clients, and feeding, which require nursing judgment and skills beyond basic care. Therefore, these tasks should be performed by licensed nursing staff who can assess, communicate effectively, and address the specific medical and safety needs of the client.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

5. A community health nurse is preparing a campaign about seasonal influenza. Which of the following plans should the nurse include as a secondary prevention?

• A. Screening groups of older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations
• B. Promoting hand hygiene to prevent the spread of influenza
• C. Administering influenza vaccinations
• D. Educating about the importance of healthy lifestyle choices to prevent influenza

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary prevention aims to detect and address health issues early. Screening older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations is an example of secondary prevention by identifying cases at an early stage. Choice B, promoting hand hygiene, is a form of primary prevention that aims to prevent the occurrence of influenza. Choice C, administering influenza vaccinations, is a form of primary prevention as well, focusing on preventing the disease before it occurs. Choice D, educating about healthy lifestyle choices, is more related to health promotion and primary prevention rather than secondary prevention.

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