Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which finding indicates that the bladder irrigation is effective?

• A. The client reports minimal pain and discomfort.
• B. The urine appears clear and free of clots.
• C. The client has no signs of infection.
• D. The client is able to void independently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of clear urine free of clots is an indicator that the bladder irrigation is effective. This finding suggests that the irrigation is preventing clot formation and ensuring proper drainage, which is crucial after a TURP procedure. The client reporting minimal pain and discomfort (choice A) may be a positive sign but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation. The absence of infection signs (choice C) is important but not specific to evaluating the bladder irrigation. The client being able to void independently (choice D) is a good sign overall but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation.

2. During an admission assessment of an older adult client, a nurse should identify which of the following findings as a potential indication of abuse?

• A. Bruises on the arms in various stages of healing
• B. Recent weight gain
• C. Complaints of joint pain
• D. Frequent visits to different providers

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bruises on the arms in various stages of healing should be identified as a potential indication of abuse in an older adult. These bruises may suggest physical harm or neglect, which are concerning signs of abuse. Recent weight gain (Choice B) is not typically associated with abuse and can have various causes, such as dietary changes or health conditions. Complaints of joint pain (Choice C) are more likely related to musculoskeletal issues rather than abuse. Frequent visits to different providers (Choice D) could indicate seeking multiple opinions or healthcare needs and do not necessarily point to abuse.

3. A client who had a stroke requires assistance with morning ADLs. Which of the following interprofessional team members should the nurse consult?

• A. Registered dietitian.
• B. Occupational therapist.
• C. Speech-language pathologist.
• D. Physical therapist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in assisting clients with daily living activities, making them crucial for a stroke patient requiring help with morning activities of daily living (ADLs). While a registered dietitian (A) may provide nutritional guidance, a speech-language pathologist (C) focuses on communication and swallowing disorders, and a physical therapist (D) primarily deals with mobility and physical rehabilitation. However, none of these professionals directly address the specific needs related to ADLs following a stroke as effectively as an occupational therapist.

4. A healthcare professional uses a head-to-toe approach to conduct a physical assessment of a client who will undergo surgery the following week. Which of the following critical thinking did the healthcare professional demonstrate?

• A. Confidence
• B. Perseverance
• C. Integrity
• D. Discipline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Discipline.' In this scenario, discipline is exemplified by following a structured and comprehensive assessment process, as seen in the head-to-toe approach. Confidence (choice A) relates to self-assurance and belief in one's abilities, which is not the primary critical thinking demonstrated in this situation. Perseverance (choice B) is the persistence in achieving goals despite challenges, not directly related to the systematic assessment process. Integrity (choice C) pertains to honesty and ethical behavior, which are important traits but not the critical thinking skill exemplified by the structured assessment process shown in the head-to-toe approach.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. This is a common side effect that nurses should monitor for in clients taking beta-blockers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting are not typical side effects associated with beta-blockers. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradycardia in this client.

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