Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which finding indicates that the bladder irrigation is effective?

• A. The client reports minimal pain and discomfort.
• B. The urine appears clear and free of clots.
• C. The client has no signs of infection.
• D. The client is able to void independently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of clear urine free of clots is an indicator that the bladder irrigation is effective. This finding suggests that the irrigation is preventing clot formation and ensuring proper drainage, which is crucial after a TURP procedure. The client reporting minimal pain and discomfort (choice A) may be a positive sign but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation. The absence of infection signs (choice C) is important but not specific to evaluating the bladder irrigation. The client being able to void independently (choice D) is a good sign overall but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

• A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
• B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
• D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

3. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Whole milk
• C. Cream soups
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.

4. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

5. When measuring a client's blood pressure, which approach is the priority for a nurse caring for a client with hypertension?

• A. Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time
• B. Use a different arm for each measurement
• C. Measure the blood pressure while the client is standing
• D. Take multiple readings at different times of the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct approach when measuring a client's blood pressure, especially for a client with hypertension, is to obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time. Consistency in measurement conditions helps ensure accurate and comparable blood pressure readings. Using a different arm for each measurement (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to variations in readings. Measuring the blood pressure while the client is standing (Choice C) is not the standard practice and may not provide accurate results. Taking multiple readings at different times of the day (Choice D) may be useful for monitoring blood pressure trends but is not the priority when ensuring accurate individual readings.

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