Nursing Elites

1. An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for the administration of bolus tube feedings?

• A. Prone.
• B. Fowler's.
• C. Sims'.
• D. Supine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fowler's position. Placing the client in Fowler's position, with the head of the bed elevated to 45-60 degrees, reduces the risk of aspiration during bolus enteral feedings by facilitating the flow of the feeding into the stomach. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down, which is not suitable for feeding. Sims' position (choice C) is a side-lying position used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for feeding. Supine position (choice D) is lying flat on the back and is not optimal for reducing the risk of aspiration during bolus tube feedings.

2. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Saturated abdominal dressing
• C. Pain level of 8/10
• D. Temperature of 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

3. A healthcare provider in an office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a client’s thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Rhonchi
• B. Crackles
• C. Resonance
• D. Tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a thoracic examination, normal findings should include resonance, which is the expected sound when percussing the thorax. Resonance indicates healthy lung tissue and air-filled spaces. Abnormal findings such as rhonchi and crackles suggest issues like lung congestion or inflammation. Tactile fremitus refers to vibrations felt on the chest wall during palpation and is not typically assessed during percussion and auscultation of the thorax.

4. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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