Nursing Elites

1. When administering otic ear medication to an adult client, what action should be done to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear?

• A. Press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear.
• B. Pull the ear lobe up and back.
• C. Insert the medication deeply into the ear canal.
• D. Massage the ear gently after administering the medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear is to press gently on the tragus of the client’s ear. The tragus is the small pointed eminence of the external ear, and pressing on it helps direct the medication deeper into the ear canal. Pulling the ear lobe up and back (Choice B) is the correct technique for administering eardrops to a child, not an adult. Inserting the medication deeply into the ear canal (Choice C) can cause injury or discomfort as the eardrops are designed to flow into the ear canal naturally. Massaging the ear gently after administering the medication (Choice D) is unnecessary and may not help the medication reach the inner ear effectively.

2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Reassure the client that this is not a normal finding.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Document the finding in the client’s chart.
• D. Encourage the client to seek medical attention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. Black, tarry stools can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication that requires urgent medical evaluation and intervention. This finding should not be dismissed or considered normal without further assessment. Option A is incorrect because black, tarry stools are not a normal finding and may signify a significant health issue. Option C is incorrect as immediate action is needed rather than just documenting the finding. Option D is not the best choice as it simply suggests seeking medical attention without emphasizing the urgency of the situation. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management of potential gastrointestinal bleeding.

3. During new employee orientation, a nurse is explaining how to prevent IV infections. Which of the following statements by an orientee indicates understanding of the preventive strategies?

• A. “I will leave the IV catheter in place after the client completes the course of IV antibiotics.”
• B. “As long as I am working with the same client, I can use the same IV catheter for my second insertion attempt.”
• C. “If my client needs to use the restroom, it would be safer to disconnect their IV infusion as long as I clean the injection port thoroughly with an antiseptic swab.”
• D. “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will replace any IV catheter when I suspect contamination during insertion.” This statement demonstrates an understanding of preventive strategies for IV infections. Suspecting and replacing any contaminated IV catheter during insertion is crucial to prevent infections and ensure patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leaving the IV catheter in place after completing antibiotics, reusing the same IV catheter, and disconnecting the IV infusion without proper precautions can increase the risk of infections. Therefore, option D is the best choice for preventing IV infections.

4. The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?

• A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
• B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
• C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
• D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct method for transferring an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. This technique provides a stable and safe transfer by utilizing the stronger side of the client to support the transfer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side, assisting the client to a standing position and placing the right hand on the armrest, and having the client pivot to the left before sitting do not address the client's left-sided weakness and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.

5. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will

• A. Improve the quality of care
• B. Decrease staff turnover
• C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
• D. Improve team morale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.

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