HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client has been admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate. When there is excessive loss of bicarbonate through diarrhea, the pH of the blood decreases, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is not typically associated with severe diarrhea as it involves elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely with severe diarrhea as potassium is often lost along with fluids. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common complication of severe diarrhea; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to malabsorption of calcium.
2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?
- A. Fresh fruits
- B. Grilled chicken
- C. Whole grain bread
- D. Canned soup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soups are often high in sodium content, which can be harmful to individuals with hypertension following a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits, grilled chicken, and whole grain bread are generally healthier options with lower sodium content and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits provide essential vitamins and minerals, grilled chicken is a lean protein source, and whole grain bread offers fiber and nutrients without excessive sodium levels. Avoiding canned soup aligns with the goal of reducing sodium intake to manage hypertension.
3. A healthcare provider is planning to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Insert the IV catheter without using a tourniquet.
- B. Use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to avoid injury to fragile skin or veins.
- C. Insert the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle.
- D. Use a smaller gauge catheter to reduce vein trauma.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When initiating IV therapy in older adults, it is essential to use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to prevent potential injury to fragile skin or veins. The use of a tourniquet can lead to increased venous pressure and potentially cause vein damage in older adult clients. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the IV catheter without a tourniquet can make locating veins more challenging. Choice C is incorrect as inserting the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle is not a recommended practice and can increase the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because using a smaller gauge catheter may not be appropriate for older adults who may require a larger gauge catheter for adequate fluid administration.
4. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the LPN/LVN implement?
- A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.
- B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe.
- C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli.
- D. Offer a medication-free period to allow the client to engage in daily activities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to implement is to give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. This approach helps maintain consistent pain management by providing the medication regularly, preventing the pain from becoming severe. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for severe pain before administering the analgesic may lead to uncontrolled pain levels. Choice C is inappropriate as the goal of pain management in hospice care is to provide comfort without unnecessary sedation. Choice D is also incorrect as offering a medication-free period may result in inadequate pain control for the client.
5. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
- A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
- B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
- C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
- D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.
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