HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client has been admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate. When there is excessive loss of bicarbonate through diarrhea, the pH of the blood decreases, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is not typically associated with severe diarrhea as it involves elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely with severe diarrhea as potassium is often lost along with fluids. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common complication of severe diarrhea; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to malabsorption of calcium.
2. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
- B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
- C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
- D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.
3. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer due to a lesion on the anterior thigh. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a possible indication of a skin malignancy?
- A. An uneven shape
- B. A uniformly colored lesion
- C. A lesion that is small and flat
- D. A lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An uneven shape of a lesion is a common characteristic of malignant skin lesions. Asymmetric or irregularly shaped lesions are concerning for skin cancer and should be reported promptly for further evaluation and management. Choice B, a uniformly colored lesion, is more indicative of a benign lesion as malignant lesions often exhibit variations in color. Choice C, a lesion that is small and flat, does not necessarily indicate malignancy by itself. Choice D, a lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter, is more suggestive of a benign lesion, as malignant lesions are typically larger in size.
4. The patient has the nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility related to pain in the left shoulder. Which priority action will the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the patient to engage in self-care.
- B. Promote mobility in the patient.
- C. Encourage the patient to perform range of motion exercises.
- D. Assist the patient with comfort measures.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority action for a patient with Impaired physical mobility related to pain is to assist the patient with comfort measures. By addressing pain through comfort measures, the patient will be more willing and able to move. Encouraging self-care (Choice A) may be important but addressing pain first is crucial in improving mobility. Promoting mobility (Choice B) and encouraging range of motion exercises (Choice C) are important but addressing the pain and providing comfort measures take precedence to improve the patient's physical mobility.
5. A client is admitted to a voluntary hospital mental health unit due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for 2 days and now states, 'I demand to be released now!' The appropriate action is for the nurse to:
- A. You cannot be released because you are still suicidal.
- B. You can be released only if you sign a no-suicide contract.
- C. Let's discuss your decision to leave and then we can prepare you for discharge.
- D. You have a right to sign out as soon as we get an order from the healthcare provider's discharge order.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to engage the client in a discussion about their decision to leave and then prepare them for discharge. This approach allows the nurse to assess the client's current state, address concerns, and plan for a safe discharge. Option A is incorrect because it does not involve a therapeutic communication approach and may escalate the situation. Option B is incorrect as it places a condition on the client for release, which is not recommended in this situation. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care.
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