HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, the next action by the nurse should be to
- A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse experiences reluctance to interact with a manipulative client, it is essential to address these feelings constructively. Discussing the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor allows the nurse to gain perspective, reflect on the situation, and develop appropriate strategies for patient care. This action promotes self-awareness, professional growth, and ensures that patient care is not compromised. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues and can impact the therapeutic relationship. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client may escalate the situation and hinder effective communication. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario, as it focuses on behavior modification rather than addressing the nurse's feelings of reluctance.
2. A client with an aggressive form of prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider briefly discusses treatment options and leaves the room. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. “I am available to talk if you should change your mind.”
- B. “I understand you do not want to discuss it further.”
- C. “You should talk to the provider if you have more questions.”
- D. “I will be back later to discuss your concerns.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should offer support without pressuring the client. Stating, “I am available to talk if you should change your mind,” acknowledges the client's decision while leaving the door open for future discussions. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client's decision is final without offering further support. Choice C directs the client back to the provider without addressing the nurse's availability. Choice D commits to a future discussion without considering the client's current preference.
3. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
- B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
- C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
- D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.
4. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
- B. Clean the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily.
- C. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.
- D. Secure the catheter to the client's leg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily is essential to prevent infection when caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. This practice helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary tract. Ensuring the catheter tubing is free of kinks (Choice A) is important for maintaining proper urine flow but is not directly related to preventing infection. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift (Choice C) is not a routine practice and can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Securing the catheter to the client's leg (Choice D) is important for stability but does not directly prevent infection.
5. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?
- A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
- B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
- C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
- D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.
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