Nursing Elites

1. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, the next action by the nurse should be to

• A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
• B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of manipulative behavior
• C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
• D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse experiences reluctance to interact with a manipulative client, it is essential to address these feelings constructively. Discussing the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor allows the nurse to gain perspective, reflect on the situation, and develop appropriate strategies for patient care. This action promotes self-awareness, professional growth, and ensures that patient care is not compromised. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues and can impact the therapeutic relationship. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client may escalate the situation and hinder effective communication. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario, as it focuses on behavior modification rather than addressing the nurse's feelings of reluctance.

2. An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the LPN/LVN implement first?

• A. Reaffirm the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts.
• B. Transfer the client to a hospice inpatient facility.
• C. Prepare the family for the client's impending death.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the LPN/LVN should implement is to notify the healthcare provider of the family's request. This is crucial to ensure that appropriate steps are taken to address the family's request for hospice care and to coordinate the necessary care for the resident. While reaffirming the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts is important, notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence in this situation. Transferring the client to a hospice inpatient facility and preparing the family for the client's impending death are significant actions but should be done after notifying the healthcare provider to ensure proper coordination of care.

3. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
• B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
• C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
• D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

5. A nurse is planning strategies to manage time effectively for client care. What should the nurse implement?

• A. Use the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery.
• B. Delegate all tasks to assistive personnel.
• C. Focus on completing tasks in the order they are assigned.
• D. Avoid using a checklist for daily tasks.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the planning step of the nursing process to prioritize client care delivery is crucial for effective time management. By prioritizing tasks based on client needs and acuity levels, the nurse can ensure that the most critical care is provided in a timely manner. Choice B is incorrect because while delegation is important, not all tasks can be delegated, and the nurse is ultimately responsible for the care provided. Choice C is incorrect as completing tasks in the order they are assigned may not align with the urgency of client needs. Choice D is incorrect as using a checklist can help the nurse stay organized and ensure that all necessary tasks are completed.

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