HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A home health nurse is discussing the dangers of carbon monoxide poisoning with a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Carbon monoxide does not have a distinct odor.
- B. Water heaters should be inspected every 5 years.
- C. The lungs are not damaged from carbon monoxide inhalation.
- D. Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin in the body.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin in the body.' Carbon monoxide is an odorless, colorless gas, so it does not have a distinct odor (Choice A). While regular inspection of appliances like water heaters is important for safety, it is not directly related to carbon monoxide poisoning (Choice B). Carbon monoxide primarily affects the cardiovascular system by binding with hemoglobin, reducing the blood's ability to carry oxygen, rather than causing direct lung damage (Choice C). Understanding how carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin is crucial in recognizing the mechanism of poisoning and its potential consequences.
2. A client is admitted for evaluation and control of HTN. Several hours after the client's admission, the nurse discovers the client supine on the floor, unresponsive to verbal or painful stimuli. The nurse's first reaction at this time is to:
- A. Establish an airway
- B. Call for assistance
- C. Check the client's pulse and blood pressure
- D. Perform CPR
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a situation where a client is found unresponsive on the floor, the nurse's first priority is to establish an airway. This is crucial to ensure that the client can breathe adequately and receive oxygen. Without a patent airway, the client's oxygenation and ventilation may be compromised, leading to serious consequences. Calling for assistance is important, but establishing an airway takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's ability to breathe. Checking the client's pulse and blood pressure can be done after ensuring a clear airway. Performing CPR is not the immediate action needed unless the client's breathing and pulse are absent after the airway has been secured.
3. A client is receiving continuous IV fluid therapy via a peripheral vein in the left forearm. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed phlebitis at the IV site?
- A. Erythema along the path of the vein
- B. Pitting edema at the insertion site
- C. Coolness of the client’s left forearm
- D. Pallor of the client’s left forearm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythema (redness) along the path of the vein is a classic sign of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. This occurs due to irritation or infection at the IV site. Pitting edema (choice B) is not typically associated with phlebitis but suggests fluid overload or poor circulation. Coolness (choice C) and pallor (choice D) of the forearm are not characteristic signs of phlebitis but may indicate impaired circulation or reduced blood flow to the area.
4. A client admitted with sudden onset of severe back pain of unknown origin. Which statement would be most effective for the nurse to use to elicit further information from this client about his pain?
- A. Tell me how you are feeling right now.
- B. Describe the pain you are experiencing.
- C. Can you tell me more about your back pain?
- D. When did the pain start and how severe is it?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Describe the pain you are experiencing.' This question is the most effective as it prompts the client to provide detailed information about the nature of the pain, including its characteristics, intensity, and location. This detailed description can help the nurse in assessing the possible cause and severity of the pain. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective as they are either too general ('Tell me how you are feeling right now'), redundant ('Can you tell me more about your back pain?'), or focused only on timing and severity ('When did the pain start and how severe is it?').
5. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access