Nursing Elites

1. When evaluating the effectiveness of a client’s nursing care, the nurse first reviews the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Determine if the expected outcomes were realistic
• B. Obtain current client data to compare with expected outcomes
• C. Modify the nursing interventions to achieve the client’s goals
• D. Review related professional standards of care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After reviewing the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care, the nurse's next step should be to determine if these outcomes were realistic. This assessment helps in understanding if the goals set were achievable and appropriate for the client's condition before proceeding to compare them with current client data or modifying nursing interventions. By verifying the realism of the expected outcomes, the nurse ensures a solid foundation for further evaluation and adjustment of the care plan. Option B is incorrect because obtaining current client data comes after assessing the realism of the expected outcomes. Option C is incorrect because modifying nursing interventions should be based on the assessment of the expected outcomes' realism. Option D is incorrect as reviewing professional standards of care is important but not the immediate next step after assessing the expected outcomes' realism.

2. Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a client at high risk for the development of postoperative thrombus formation?

• A. Instruct the client in the use of the incentive spirometer.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed during all meals.
• C. Use aseptic technique when changing the dressing.
• D. Encourage frequent ambulation in the hallway.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombus formation is a risk for clients who are immobile postoperatively. Encouraging frequent ambulation helps to prevent stasis in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of thrombus formation. This intervention promotes circulation and prevents blood clot formation, making it the most important intervention in this situation.

3. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Dependent rubor.
• B. Absence of hair on the lower legs.
• C. Shiny, thin skin on the legs.
• D. Pain in the legs when walking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

4. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

5. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
• B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
• D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should record the amount on the client's fluid output record because the 350 mL of pale yellow urine is a normal finding. This indicates appropriate urine output, so encouraging increased fluid intake or notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this time. Additionally, palpating the client's bladder for distention is not indicated based on the normal urine output observed.

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