Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to inject heparin subcutaneously for a client who is postoperative. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Use a 25-gauge needle.
• B. Select a site on the client’s abdomen.
• C. Use the Z-track technique to displace the skin on the injection site.
• D. Observe for bleb formation to confirm proper placement.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For subcutaneous injections like heparin, a 25-27 gauge needle is recommended, making choice A incorrect. The abdomen is a commonly used site for heparin injection due to its consistent absorption and convenience, making choice B the correct answer. The Z-track technique is not necessary for subcutaneous injections, making choice C unnecessary. Observing for bleb formation is not a standard practice for confirming proper placement of subcutaneous heparin, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct action is to select a site on the client's abdomen for the injection.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following measures should the professional take to prevent the spread of infection?

• A. Place a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow
• B. Use a disposable gown for contact precautions
• C. Place a client with MRSA in a private room
• D. Use a mask for clients with influenza

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tuberculosis is an airborne infection, and placing a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing the pathogens. This measure is crucial as it prevents the dissemination of TB droplet nuclei to other areas. Choice B, using a disposable gown for contact precautions, is important for preventing the transmission of infections spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, placing a client with MRSA in a private room, is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA through contact with others. Choice D, using a mask for clients with influenza, helps prevent the spread of influenza through respiratory droplets. However, negative pressure airflow is specifically required for airborne infections like TB, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

• A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• D. Simvastatin (Zocor)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

4. A 25-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis should have the highest priority?

• A. Fluid volume deficit
• B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
• C. Anxiety related to new situational crisis
• D. Activity intolerance related to fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a case of hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing the Fluid volume deficit. This condition can lead to serious complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration, which can endanger both the mother and the fetus if not managed promptly. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements is important but addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it poses an immediate threat. Anxiety related to new situational crisis and Activity intolerance related to fatigue are valid concerns, but they are secondary to the critical issue of fluid volume deficit in this scenario.

5. At the time of the first dressing change, the client refuses to look at her mastectomy incision. The LPN tells the client that the incision is healing well, but the client refuses to talk about it. What would be an appropriate response to this client's silence?

• A. It is normal to feel angry and depressed, but the sooner you deal with this surgery, the better you will feel.
• B. Looking at your incision can be frightening, but facing this fear is a necessary part of your recovery.
• C. It is OK if you don't want to talk about your surgery. I will be available when you are ready.
• D. I will ask a woman who has had a mastectomy to come by and share her experiences with you.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, it's essential to acknowledge and respect the client's feelings and choices. Choice C is the most appropriate response as it validates the client's decision not to discuss the surgery while offering support and understanding. Giving the client space and letting them know you will be available when they are ready shows empathy and fosters trust. Choices A and B do not respect the client's autonomy and may come across as dismissive or pressuring. Choice D assumes the client needs advice from someone who has had a similar experience without considering the client's current emotional state and preferences.

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