Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to inject heparin subcutaneously for a client who is postoperative. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Use a 25-gauge needle.
• B. Select a site on the client’s abdomen.
• C. Use the Z-track technique to displace the skin on the injection site.
• D. Observe for bleb formation to confirm proper placement.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For subcutaneous injections like heparin, a 25-27 gauge needle is recommended, making choice A incorrect. The abdomen is a commonly used site for heparin injection due to its consistent absorption and convenience, making choice B the correct answer. The Z-track technique is not necessary for subcutaneous injections, making choice C unnecessary. Observing for bleb formation is not a standard practice for confirming proper placement of subcutaneous heparin, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct action is to select a site on the client's abdomen for the injection.

2. A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Performing a blood sample for a screening test.
• B. Scheduling a colonoscopy starting at age 60.
• C. Undergoing a fecal occult blood test annually.
• D. Having a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.

3. A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, 'Help! I think he is having a heart attack!' The nurse responds to the scene and finds the unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an AED. The nurse's first action, after ensuring someone has called for EMS, should be to:

• A. Administer cardiac compressions
• B. Attach the AED pads to the client
• C. Check for a pulse
• D. Perform rescue breaths

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a scenario where a person is unconscious and there is an indication of a possible heart attack, the immediate priority for the nurse should be to administer cardiac compressions. This action helps maintain circulation and ensures oxygenated blood reaches vital organs until the AED is available. Checking for a pulse or performing rescue breaths may delay essential circulation support, and attaching AED pads should follow the initial step of administering compressions to maximize the chances of a successful resuscitation.

4. A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, what should the nurse do?

• A. Lock the wheels on the bed and gurney
• B. Adjust the bed height
• C. Use a slide sheet
• D. Ask for assistance from another nurse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when transferring a postoperative client from the gurney to the bed is to lock the wheels on both the bed and the gurney. Locking the wheels ensures stability and prevents accidents during the transfer. Adjusting the bed height may be necessary for comfort but is not the primary concern during the transfer process. Using a slide sheet may be helpful in repositioning the client once on the bed but is not essential for the initial transfer. Asking for assistance from another nurse is always a good practice, but the immediate action to ensure safety during the transfer is to lock the wheels.

5. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

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