Nursing Elites

1. An activity designed to diagnose and treat a disease or condition in its earliest stages, before it becomes full-blown, would be classified as:

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health education

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, secondary prevention. Secondary prevention focuses on early diagnosis and intervention to prevent the progression of a disease or condition. This involves detecting and treating the illness in its early stages to reduce its impact. Choice A, primary prevention, aims to prevent the development of a disease or injury before it occurs by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and improving the quality of life of individuals with established conditions to prevent complications and further deterioration. Choice D, health education, refers to providing information and promoting awareness about health issues to enable individuals to make informed decisions and adopt healthy behaviors.

2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. White blood cell count (WBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?

• A. Administration of cough suppressants
• B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
• C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.

4. Which intervention should the public health nurse implement to address one of the leading health indicators of Healthy People 2020?

• A. Lead a weekly water aerobics class for the elderly at a community center.
• B. Teach a class on cultural awareness to nursing students at the university.
• C. Design and implement a no smoking campaign at the local high school.
• D. Write a grant to help provide glucometers to individuals who cannot afford one.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Designing and implementing a no smoking campaign aligns with the objective of reducing tobacco use, which is one of the leading health indicators of Healthy People 2020. This intervention directly targets a significant public health concern. Leading a water aerobics class, teaching cultural awareness, or providing glucometers, while beneficial in other contexts, do not specifically address the leading health indicators outlined by Healthy People 2020.

5. Which topic should be included in planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community?

• A. Safety measures in the home.
• B. Adult immunization program.
• C. Rehabilitation after surgery.
• D. Vision and hearing screening.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community, vision and hearing screening should be included. This is crucial as sensory impairments are common among older adults and early detection through screening can help in preventing further complications. Safety measures in the home, adult immunization programs, and rehabilitation after surgery are important but fall more under primary or tertiary prevention strategies rather than secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of health conditions.

Similar Questions