HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank
1. An 82-year-old client is prescribed eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. What assessment is needed before the nurse begins teaching proper administration of the medication?
- A. Determine the client's manual dexterity
- B. The client’s manual dexterity
- C. Proximity to health care services
- D. Ability to use visual assistive devices
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the client’s manual dexterity is crucial before teaching the administration of eye drops. Manual dexterity is essential for the proper instillation of eye drops. If the client has limited manual dexterity, alternative methods of administration may be necessary. The other choices, such as determining third-party payment plan, proximity to health care services, and ability to use visual assistive devices, are not directly related to the immediate need for assessing manual dexterity for the proper administration of eye drops.
2. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?
- A. primary prevention
- B. secondary prevention
- C. tertiary prevention
- D. health promotion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.
3. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Tendonitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.
4. A client was re-admitted to the hospital following a recent skull fracture. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. Lethargy
- B. Agitation
- C. Ataxia
- D. Hearing loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lethargy is a critical finding that requires the nurse's immediate attention when a client with a recent skull fracture is readmitted to the hospital. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or other serious complications such as hemorrhage or infection. Addressing lethargy promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Agitation, ataxia, and hearing loss are important to assess but do not signify the same level of urgency as lethargy in this context.
5. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?
- A. Auditory gurgling
- B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
- C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
- D. Frequent dry coughing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.
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