an infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula the mother asks whe
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. An infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula. The mother asks, 'When can the tube be used for feeding?' The nurse's best response would be which of these comments?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The stomach contents and air must be drained first.' Before starting feedings through a gastrostomy tube, it is essential to drain the stomach contents and air. This process helps prevent complications and ensures the proper functioning of the tube after placement. Choice A is incorrect because initiating feedings within 5 to 7 days may lead to complications if the stomach is not adequately prepared. Choice B is incorrect as feeding should not begin immediately to allow for proper preparation of the tube and the stomach. Choice D is incorrect because although incision healing is important, draining the stomach contents and air is a more immediate concern to prevent complications.

2. While performing an initial assessment on a newborn following a breech delivery, the nurse suspects hip dislocation. Which of the following is most suggestive of the abnormality?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Irregular hip symmetry, such as asymmetry in the gluteal folds, is a common sign of hip dislocation in newborns. This finding indicates a potential abnormality in hip development and requires further evaluation and possible treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Flexion of lower extremities is a normal newborn reflex, the Ortolani response is used to detect hip dysplasia rather than hip dislocation, and a lengthened leg of the affected side is not typically associated with hip dislocation in newborns.

3. You assisted the midwife in formulating the objectives of the plan of care for Barangay Mabulaklak. Which of the following is a well-stated objective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A specific, measurable objective like reducing the number of underweight children by 10% is well-stated. This objective is clear, quantifiable, and time-bound, making it easier to track progress and evaluate the effectiveness of the plan. Choices A, B, and C are not as well-stated as they lack specificity, measurability, and a quantifiable target.

4. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

5. When caring for premature newborns in an intensive care setting, a nurse carefully monitors oxygen concentration. What is the most common complication of this therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Retinopathy of prematurity is the most common complication in premature infants exposed to high concentrations of oxygen. This condition leads to abnormal blood vessel growth in the retina, which can potentially result in blindness if not managed promptly. Intraventricular hemorrhage, though a significant concern in premature infants, is not directly related to oxygen therapy. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is primarily associated with mechanical ventilation and oxygen exposure over time, not specifically with oxygen concentration monitoring. Necrotizing enterocolitis is more linked to gastrointestinal issues and is not the most common complication of oxygen therapy in premature newborns.

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