Nursing Elites

1. An infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula. The mother asks, 'When can the tube be used for feeding?' The nurse's best response would be which of these comments?

• A. "Feedings can begin in 5 to 7 days."
• B. "The use of the feeding tube can begin immediately."
• C. "The stomach contents and air must be drained first."
• D. "The incision healing must be complete before feeding."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The stomach contents and air must be drained first.' Before starting feedings through a gastrostomy tube, it is essential to drain the stomach contents and air. This process helps prevent complications and ensures the proper functioning of the tube after placement. Choice A is incorrect because initiating feedings within 5 to 7 days may lead to complications if the stomach is not adequately prepared. Choice B is incorrect as feeding should not begin immediately to allow for proper preparation of the tube and the stomach. Choice D is incorrect because although incision healing is important, draining the stomach contents and air is a more immediate concern to prevent complications.

2. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS EXCEPT:

• A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic diseases and describe their natural history
• B. To provide a standardized, facility-level database that can be accessed for more in-depth studies
• C. To minimize recording and reporting burden, allowing more time for patient care and promotive activities
• D. To ensure that data reported are useful and accurate and are disseminated in a timely and easy-to-use fashion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Completing the clinical picture of chronic diseases and describing their natural history is not an objective of FHSIS. The objectives of FHSIS include providing a standardized, facility-level database for more in-depth studies (B), minimizing recording and reporting burden to allow more time for patient care and promotive activities (C), and ensuring that reported data are useful, accurate, and disseminated in a timely and easy-to-use manner (D). Therefore, A is the exception among the listed objectives.

3. The appropriate order of steps in active management of the third stage of labor includes:

• A. Cord clamping and cutting, controlled cord traction, ergometrine administration, and inspection to ensure the placenta is intact.
• B. Intravenous oxytocin, cord clamping and cutting, and fundal massage.
• C. Intramuscular injection of oxytocin, controlled cord traction with counter traction to the uterus, and uterine massage.
• D. Controlled cord traction, fundal massage, and oxytocin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence of steps in active management of the third stage of labor includes intramuscular injection of oxytocin to prevent postpartum hemorrhage, controlled cord traction with counter traction to the uterus to facilitate placental delivery, and uterine massage to aid in uterine contraction and prevent excessive bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because ergometrine administration is not routinely recommended in active management. Choice B is incorrect as intravenous oxytocin is not the preferred route of administration. Choice D is incorrect as the order of steps is not accurate.

4. The community health nurse is planning a series of educational courses about the healthcare system and meeting healthcare needs for the community center. Which adjunct issue should the nurse address for a group of older adults?

• A. Peer concerns.
• B. Adult daycare.
• C. Retirement issues.
• D. Vocational concerns.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When planning educational courses for older adults, addressing adult daycare is crucial as it is a relevant issue that can impact their daily lives and access to healthcare services. Peer concerns may not be directly related to healthcare needs, retirement issues are important but not as immediate in terms of healthcare access, and vocational concerns are more pertinent to working-age individuals.

5. In addition to disturbances in mental awareness and orientation, a client with cognitive impairment is also likely to show loss of ability in

• A. Hearing, speech, and sight
• B. Endurance, strength, and mobility
• C. Learning, creativity, and judgment
• D. Balance, flexibility, and coordination

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with cognitive impairment often experience difficulties in learning new information, creative thinking, and making sound judgments. Loss of ability in hearing, speech, and sight (Choice A) is more closely related to sensory impairments rather than cognitive impairment. Endurance, strength, and mobility (Choice B) are more associated with physical capabilities rather than cognitive functions. Balance, flexibility, and coordination (Choice D) are related to motor skills and physical coordination, not cognitive impairment.

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