Nursing Elites

1. A community health action that focuses on reducing the frequency and severity of asthma in inner-city children by requiring a local incinerator to install particulate filters is an example of:

• A. downstream intervention
• B. risk management
• C. primary prevention
• D. upstream intervention

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: upstream intervention. Upstream thinking addresses the root causes of health problems to create long-term solutions. In this scenario, requiring the incinerator to install particulate filters tackles the root cause of asthma triggers, which is pollution, rather than just managing the symptoms or risks associated with asthma. Choice A, downstream intervention, would focus more on treating asthma symptoms after they have already occurred rather than preventing them. Choice B, risk management, typically involves strategies to assess, control, or mitigate risks, which may not directly address the root cause. Choice C, primary prevention, usually refers to actions taken to prevent a disease or condition before it occurs, but in this case, the action is targeting the underlying cause rather than preventing asthma itself.

2. To individualize care for a client and ensure maximum participation in that care, what should the nurse consider as the most important factor in planning the said care?

• A. environment
• B. educational attainment
• C. health beliefs and practices
• D. health status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: health beliefs and practices. Health beliefs and practices directly influence a client's willingness and ability to participate in care. Understanding a client's health beliefs and practices helps the nurse tailor the care plan to align with the client's values and preferences. Choice A, environment, though important, may not be the most critical factor in individualizing care. Choice B, educational attainment, is relevant but not as significant as understanding the client's health beliefs and practices. Choice D, health status, is essential but does not address the individualization of care and maximizing participation as directly as health beliefs and practices.

3. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

4. Which level of care serves as a referral center for primary health facilities?

• A. Secondary level health care
• B. Primary health care
• C. Tertiary level care
• D. Intermediate level care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Secondary level health care is the correct answer as it serves as a referral center for primary health facilities. Primary health care refers to basic health services provided in the community setting. Tertiary level care involves specialized services like hospitals with advanced medical equipment and expertise. Intermediate level care is not a standard term in the hierarchy of health care services.

5. The nurse is caring for an acutely ill 10-year-old client. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Rapid bounding pulse
• B. Temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius
• C. Profuse diaphoresis
• D. Slow, irregular respirations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, slow, irregular respirations. In an acutely ill child, this assessment can indicate impending respiratory failure or neurological compromise, necessitating immediate intervention. Rapid bounding pulse (choice A) may indicate tachycardia but is not as immediately concerning as compromised respirations. A temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius (choice B) is elevated but may not be the most urgent concern unless accompanied by other symptoms. Profuse diaphoresis (choice C) can indicate increased sympathetic activity but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.

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