HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Exam
1. A community health action that focuses on reducing the frequency and severity of asthma in inner-city children by requiring a local incinerator to install particulate filters is an example of:
- A. downstream intervention
- B. risk management
- C. primary prevention
- D. upstream intervention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: upstream intervention. Upstream thinking addresses the root causes of health problems to create long-term solutions. In this scenario, requiring the incinerator to install particulate filters tackles the root cause of asthma triggers, which is pollution, rather than just managing the symptoms or risks associated with asthma. Choice A, downstream intervention, would focus more on treating asthma symptoms after they have already occurred rather than preventing them. Choice B, risk management, typically involves strategies to assess, control, or mitigate risks, which may not directly address the root cause. Choice C, primary prevention, usually refers to actions taken to prevent a disease or condition before it occurs, but in this case, the action is targeting the underlying cause rather than preventing asthma itself.
2. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?
- A. Auditory gurgling
- B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
- C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
- D. Frequent dry coughing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.
3. Which topic should the nurse include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents?
- A. Risk factors for heart disease.
- B. Dietary management of obesity.
- C. Suicide risks and prevention.
- D. Coping with stressful situations.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct topic that the nurse should include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents is suicide risks and prevention. Adolescents are particularly vulnerable to mental health issues, including suicidal ideation. Educating them about suicide risks and prevention strategies is crucial for early intervention and support. Choices A, B, and D are important topics, but when considering primary prevention for adolescents, addressing suicide risks and prevention takes precedence due to its immediate life-saving implications.
4. Which of the following is designed to help clients reduce the risk of illness and maintain the maximum level of function?
- A. illness prevention
- B. crisis intervention
- C. rehabilitation
- D. health promotion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: health promotion.' Health promotion strategies are aimed at helping individuals reduce the risk of illness and maintain their maximum level of function by emphasizing preventive measures, healthy behaviors, and lifestyle choices. Illness prevention (choice A) focuses on specific actions to avoid illness but may not necessarily address overall function. Crisis intervention (choice B) refers to immediate assistance during emergencies rather than long-term prevention. Rehabilitation (choice C) involves restoring function after illness or injury rather than primarily focusing on preventive measures and maintaining maximum function.
5. The new graduate nurse interviews for a position in a nursing department of a large health care agency, described by the interviewer as having shared governance. Which of these statements best illustrates the shared governance model?
- A. An appointed board oversees any administrative decisions
- B. Nursing departments share responsibility for client outcomes
- C. Staff groups are appointed to discuss nursing practice and client education issues
- D. Non-nurse managers supervise nursing staff in groups of units
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because shared governance involves nurses and other staff sharing responsibility for decisions related to patient care and outcomes, promoting collaborative practice and shared accountability. Choice A is incorrect as shared governance includes active participation of frontline staff, not just an appointed board. Choice C is incorrect because shared governance goes beyond just discussing issues to actively sharing responsibility for decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as shared governance encourages nurses to have a significant role in decision-making rather than being supervised by non-nurse managers.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access