Nursing Elites

1. A new mother is at the clinic with her 4-week-old for a well-baby check-up. The nurse should tell the mother to anticipate that the infant will demonstrate which milestone by 2 months of age?

• A. Turns from side to back and returns
• B. Consistently returns smiles to mother
• C. Finds hands and plays with fingers
• D. Holds head up and supports weight with arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because social smiling is a developmental milestone typically expected around 2 months of age. At this stage, infants start to engage more with their caregivers and show positive emotional responses. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A describes a motor skill that usually emerges later. Choice C involves more coordination and exploration, which is not typically seen by 2 months. Choice D relates to head control and arm strength, which also develop progressively but may not be fully achieved by 2 months.

2. The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively following a hip replacement. Which intervention is most important to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis?

• A. Keep the client in a low Fowler's position
• B. Maintain hip abduction with pillows
• C. Encourage early ambulation
• D. Place the client in a prone position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining hip abduction with pillows is crucial in preventing dislocation of the hip prosthesis postoperatively. This position helps keep the hip joint stable and reduces the risk of the prosthesis becoming displaced. Choices A, C, and D are not as effective in preventing dislocation. Keeping the client in a low Fowler's position does not provide the necessary hip support. While early ambulation is important for circulation and preventing complications, maintaining hip abduction is more specific to preventing prosthesis dislocation. Placing the client in a prone position can increase the risk of hip prosthesis dislocation due to the extreme positioning.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Platelet count
• D. INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR (International Normalized Ratio). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the INR helps healthcare providers ensure that the blood is clotting within a therapeutic range. Hemoglobin (Choice A), white blood cell count (Choice B), and platelet count (Choice C) are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in this context.

4. A client is being treated for heart failure. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate treatment effectiveness?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Electrolyte levels
• C. Urine output
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight, electrolyte levels, and urine output is crucial in evaluating treatment effectiveness for heart failure. Daily weight monitoring helps assess fluid retention or loss, changes in electrolyte levels can indicate imbalances affecting heart function, and urine output monitoring provides insights into kidney function and fluid balance. Therefore, all options are essential components in assessing the patient's fluid status and response to treatment, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they only represent partial aspects of monitoring heart failure treatment effectiveness.

5. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

• A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
• B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
• C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
• D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

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