HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge following a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse prioritize in the discharge instructions?
- A. Warning signs of a potential heart attack
- B. Importance of medication adherence
- C. Follow-up appointment details
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction, the nurse should prioritize providing comprehensive instructions. This includes educating the client about warning signs of a potential heart attack to recognize symptoms early, stressing the importance of medication adherence for optimal recovery and prevention of further cardiac events, and ensuring understanding of follow-up appointment details for ongoing monitoring and care. All these aspects are crucial in preventing complications and promoting the client's well-being. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of a holistic discharge plan for a client post-myocardial infarction.
2. The client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should be included?
- A. Increase the intake of spicy foods
- B. Avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
- C. Drink coffee in moderation
- D. Eat large meals at bedtime
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client with newly diagnosed PUD about lifestyle modifications is to avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs can exacerbate peptic ulcer disease by causing further irritation of the gastric mucosa. Increasing the intake of spicy foods (choice A) can aggravate the condition by irritating the stomach lining. Drinking coffee (choice C) can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the symptoms of PUD. Eating large meals at bedtime (choice D) can also exacerbate PUD by increasing gastric acid production when the body is at rest, potentially leading to discomfort and symptoms.
3. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
- A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
- B. Melanin and keratin
- C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
- D. Adipose cells and blood vessels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?
- A. Elevated AST and ALT
- B. Decreased albumin level
- C. Elevated bilirubin level
- D. Prolonged PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.
5. During the assessment of a client who has suffered a stroke, what finding would indicate a complication?
- A. Difficulty swallowing
- B. A slight headache
- C. High blood pressure
- D. Muscle weakness on one side
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) can indicate complications such as aspiration risk, which is common after a stroke due to impaired swallowing reflexes. It poses a serious threat to the client's respiratory system. Options B, C, and D are less likely to indicate immediate complications post-stroke. A slight headache is a common complaint and may not necessarily indicate a complication. High blood pressure is a known risk factor for strokes but may not be an immediate post-stroke complication unless it is severely elevated. Muscle weakness on one side is a common sign of stroke but may not directly indicate a new complication.
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