HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?
- A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
- B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
- C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
- D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.
2. Within several days of hospitalization, a client is repeatedly washing the top of the same table. Which initial intervention is best for the nurse to implement to help the client cope with anxiety related to this behavior?
- A. Administer a prescribed PRN antianxiety medication.
- B. Assist the client in identifying stimuli that precipitate the ritualistic activity.
- C. Allow time for the ritualistic behavior, then redirect the client to other activities.
- D. Teach the client relaxation and thought-stopping techniques.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Initially, the nurse should allow time for the ritualistic behavior (C) to prevent anxiety. Administering an antianxiety medication (A) may help reduce the client's anxiety temporarily but will not address the underlying issue of ineffective coping mechanisms leading to the behavior. While assisting the client in identifying triggers (B) is important for long-term therapy, the immediate focus should be on managing the behavior. Teaching relaxation and thought-stopping techniques (D) is beneficial but might be more effective once the client is more stable and receptive to learning new coping strategies.
3. A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?
- A. Offer a sedative medication to calm the client.
- B. Encourage the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment.
- C. Use reality orientation to reduce confusion.
- D. Engage the client in physical activity to reduce agitation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.
4. What is the most important goal of care for a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been taking the benzodiazepine alprazolam (Xanax) long-term? The client will:
- A. Describe a decrease in anxiety using a 1 to 10 anxiety scale.
- B. State the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication.
- C. Not experience dizziness, lightheadedness, or sedation.
- D. Attend scheduled individual and group therapy sessions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The most important goal of care for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) taking alprazolam long-term is to ensure they understand the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication. Abruptly stopping benzodiazepines can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential complications. Choice A is not the most critical goal as the focus should be on the safe continuation of the medication. Choice C is important but not as crucial as preventing abrupt discontinuation. Choice D is beneficial for overall treatment but not the most important goal in this scenario.
5. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?
- A. Excessive work activity.
- B. Decreased need for sleep.
- C. Medication management.
- D. Inflated self-esteem.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority is to manage the client's medication adherence to prevent escalation of manic behavior. Inflated self-esteem is the highest priority as it indicates the client's potential for harmful behaviors due to lack of medication compliance. While excessive work activity and decreased need for sleep are characteristics of mania, they are not as immediately concerning as the risk of harm related to inflated self-esteem.
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