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HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?
- A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
- B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
- C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
- D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.
2. A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?
- A. Offer a sedative medication to calm the client.
- B. Encourage the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment.
- C. Use reality orientation to reduce confusion.
- D. Engage the client in physical activity to reduce agitation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.
3. A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Images indicate the presence of tumors and scars.
- B. The scan clearly outlines structures of the brain.
- C. Results show activity in various portions of the brain.
- D. PET shows biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. PET scans are primarily used to detect and observe the metabolic activity in various parts of the brain. This helps in diagnosing conditions related to brain function, such as tumors, brain disorders, and overall brain activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because PET scans focus on metabolic activity and functions in the brain rather than solely indicating the presence of tumors, outlining brain structures, or showing biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.
4. A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
- B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
- C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
- D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.
5. A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
- B. Monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior.
- C. Praise the client for the apparent improvement.
- D. Discuss the client's progress with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.
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