Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a medical diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. During the admission procedure, the client looks up and states, 'No, it's not MY fault. You can't blame me. I didn't kill him, you did.' What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Reassure the client by telling him that his fear of the admission procedure is to be expected.
• B. Tell the client that no one is accusing him of murder and remind him that the hospital is a safe place.
• C. Assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing.
• D. Ignore the behavior and make no response at all to his delusional statements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing (C). Further assessment is needed to understand the nature of the client's delusions and hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on reassuring the client about his fear, which is not addressing the underlying issue of the delusional statement. Choice B is incorrect as it argues with the client's delusion and offers false reassurance, which is not therapeutic. Choice D is incorrect as ignoring the behavior and making no response disregards the client's needs for assessment and support.

2. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

3. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse should include which information in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. This medication can cause physical dependence.
• B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice improvement.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. You may experience sedation as a side effect.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Buspirone takes time to become fully effective, so the client should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in anxiety symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is not associated with physical dependence. Choice C is not directly related to buspirone but is generally a good practice when taking any medication. Choice D is less common with buspirone compared to other anxiety medications.

4. The client is planning discharge for a male client with schizophrenia. The client insists that he is returning to his apartment, although the healthcare provider informed him that he will be moving to a boarding home. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning?

• A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
• B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
• C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
• D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing diagnosis is (A) because the client is unable to acknowledge the move to a boarding home. While (B, C, and D) are potential nursing diagnoses, denial is the most critical as it is a defense mechanism preventing the client from addressing his feelings regarding the change in living arrangements.

5. The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home. Which statement is most indicative of the need for careful follow-up after discharge?

• A. Crickets are a good source of protein.
• B. I have not heard any voices for a week.
• C. Only my belief in God can help me.
• D. Sometimes I have a hard time sitting still.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The statement 'Only my belief in God can help me' suggests a reliance on spiritual intervention over medical treatment, raising concerns about potential non-compliance. This indicates the need for close follow-up to ensure the client's well-being and adherence to the prescribed treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address potential issues related to treatment compliance or the need for follow-up care after discharge.

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