Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Describes life as without purpose.
• B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
• C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
• D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

2. A client with PTSD is experiencing flashbacks and nightmares. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the flashbacks.
• B. Assist the client in developing coping strategies.
• C. Discuss relaxation techniques with the client.
• D. Refer the client to a PTSD support group.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the flashbacks is the most appropriate initial intervention for a client with PTSD experiencing flashbacks and nightmares. This intervention helps the client express their feelings, thoughts, and experiences related to the trauma they are going through. It can assist in processing the traumatic events and starting the healing process. Choice B, assisting the client in developing coping strategies, is important but should come after the client has started to verbalize and process their experiences. Choice C, discussing relaxation techniques, may be beneficial later in the treatment process but may not be as effective initially as addressing the traumatic experiences. Choice D, referring the client to a PTSD support group, is also valuable but may not be as immediate as encouraging the client to talk about their flashbacks to begin the therapeutic process.

3. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and exhibits apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities. The nurse should recognize that these symptoms are most likely due to which of the following?

• A. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
• B. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
• C. Side effects of antipsychotic medication.
• D. Symptoms of depression.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities are negative symptoms of schizophrenia (A). Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations and delusions (B). While antipsychotic medication side effects can sometimes cause lethargy or sedation (C), the scenario specifically describes negative symptoms. Depression can also cause similar symptoms (D), but in the context of schizophrenia, these are recognized as negative symptoms.

4. Based on non-compliance with the medication regimen, an adult client with a medical diagnosis of substance abuse and schizophrenia was recently switched from oral fluphenazine HCl (Prolixin) to IM fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate). What is most important to teach the client and family about this change in medication regimen?

• A. Signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS).
• B. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia.
• C. The effects of alcohol and drug interaction.
• D. The availability of support groups for those with dual diagnoses.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching about the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is crucial to prevent adverse reactions, especially with the long-acting injectable form of fluphenazine. Understanding how alcohol and drugs can interact with the medication will help the client and family to ensure medication effectiveness and avoid potential harmful effects. Choices A, B, and D are not the most important to teach in this scenario. While knowing the signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS) is important, understanding the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is more critical in this specific situation. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia, as well as the availability of support groups, are essential aspects of care but are not the primary focus when switching to a long-acting injectable medication due to non-compliance.

5. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
• B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
• C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
• D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

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