Nursing Elites

1. While changing a client’s chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a crackling sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing around the chest tube insertion site
• B. Assess the client for allergies to topical cleaning agents
• C. Measure the area of swelling and crackling
• D. Administer an oral antihistamine per PRN protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A crackling sensation indicates subcutaneous emphysema, caused by air trapped under the skin. Applying a pressure dressing around the chest tube insertion site can help manage the issue by preventing further air leakage into the tissues. Choice B is incorrect because the crackling sensation is not related to allergies. Choice C is incorrect as measuring the area does not address the underlying cause. Choice D is incorrect as administering an oral antihistamine is not indicated for subcutaneous emphysema.

2. The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?

• A. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation
• B. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process
• C. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions
• D. Average client scores improved on a specific risk factor knowledge test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.

3. In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client’s B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client’s oxygen saturation before taking further action
• B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
• C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
• D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated BNP levels in a client with heart failure may indicate worsening heart failure. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take when encountering an elevated BNP before administering furosemide is to hold the dose and contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. This precaution is necessary to ensure the client's safety and prevent potential complications. Options A and B are incorrect as they do not address the issue of the elevated BNP, which is crucial in this situation. Option C is also incorrect because administering furosemide without consulting the healthcare provider could be harmful if the client's condition is deteriorating.

4. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

• A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
• B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
• C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
• D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

5. An adult client with a broken femur is transferred to the medical-surgical unit to await surgical internal fixation after the application of an external traction device to stabilize the leg. An hour after an opioid analgesic was administered, the client reports muscle spasms and pain at the fracture site. While waiting for the client to be transported to surgery, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe for signs of deep vein thrombosis.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant.
• C. Check the client’s most recent electrolyte values.
• D. Reduce the weight on the traction device.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant. Muscle spasms and pain might be relieved by muscle relaxants, which are appropriate before surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the client is experiencing muscle spasms, not signs of deep vein thrombosis. Choice C is not the most immediate action needed in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because reducing the weight on the traction device would not directly address the muscle spasms and pain reported by the client.

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