Nursing Elites

1. While changing a client’s chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a crackling sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing around the chest tube insertion site
• B. Assess the client for allergies to topical cleaning agents
• C. Measure the area of swelling and crackling
• D. Administer an oral antihistamine per PRN protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A crackling sensation indicates subcutaneous emphysema, caused by air trapped under the skin. Applying a pressure dressing around the chest tube insertion site can help manage the issue by preventing further air leakage into the tissues. Choice B is incorrect because the crackling sensation is not related to allergies. Choice C is incorrect as measuring the area does not address the underlying cause. Choice D is incorrect as administering an oral antihistamine is not indicated for subcutaneous emphysema.

2. To prevent aspiration in a client on mechanical ventilation receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Verify the feeding tube position with a daily chest x-ray
• B. Maintain head of bed elevated while enteral feeding is infusing
• C. Check feeding tube placement with air bolus prior to use
• D. Aspirate stomach contents every 4 hours to assess residuals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important intervention to prevent aspiration in a client receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube while on mechanical ventilation is to maintain the head of the bed elevated while the feeding is infusing. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Options A, C, and D are not as crucial as maintaining proper positioning to prevent aspiration. Verifying tube position with a daily chest x-ray is important but not the most crucial. Checking tube placement with an air bolus and aspirating stomach contents are important procedures but do not directly address the prevention of aspiration during enteral feedings.

3. Parents who have one male child with sickle cell anemia are concerned about having more children with the disease. What client teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. All future children will be carriers, but will not necessarily have the disease
• B. There is a chance that each future child will have the disease
• C. Only male children cannot inherit the sickle cell disease trait
• D. Only one out of four of their children will definitely manifest the disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Each child has a 25% chance of having sickle cell anemia if both parents are carriers of the trait. Choice A is incorrect because not all future children will be carriers; some may have the disease. Choice C is incorrect as both male and female children can inherit the sickle cell disease trait. Choice D is incorrect as the chance is not fixed at one out of four; each child has an independent 25% chance of having the disease.

4. The nurse is caring for a newborn who arrives in the nursery following a precipitous birth on the way to the hospital. A drug screen of the mother reveals the presence of cocaine metabolites. The infant has a heart rate of 175 beats/minute, cries continuously, is irritable, and is hyperreactive to stimuli. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this infant’s plan of care?

• A. Initiate infant sepsis protocol
• B. Implement seizure precautions
• C. Refer to protective child services
• D. Formula feed every 3 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The infant's symptoms, such as a high heart rate, continuous crying, irritability, and hyperreactivity, suggest possible withdrawal effects due to maternal cocaine use. These symptoms can lead to seizures. Therefore, the priority intervention is to implement seizure precautions to ensure the infant's safety. Initiating the infant sepsis protocol is not indicated based on the symptoms presented. Referring to protective child services is important but not the immediate priority. Formula feeding every 3 hours is a routine care measure but does not address the urgent need to prevent potential seizures.

5. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Eosinophils
• D. Monocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

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