HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. While changing a client’s chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a crackling sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Apply a pressure dressing around the chest tube insertion site
- B. Assess the client for allergies to topical cleaning agents
- C. Measure the area of swelling and crackling
- D. Administer an oral antihistamine per PRN protocol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A crackling sensation indicates subcutaneous emphysema, caused by air trapped under the skin. Applying a pressure dressing around the chest tube insertion site can help manage the issue by preventing further air leakage into the tissues. Choice B is incorrect because the crackling sensation is not related to allergies. Choice C is incorrect as measuring the area does not address the underlying cause. Choice D is incorrect as administering an oral antihistamine is not indicated for subcutaneous emphysema.
2. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus who is experiencing abdominal rigidity
- B. The client who had surgery yesterday and is experiencing a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds
- C. The client with an obstruction of the large intestine who is experiencing abdominal distention
- D. The client with a small bowel obstruction who has a nasogastric tube that is draining greenish fluid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Abdominal rigidity in a client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus indicates possible complications and requires immediate assessment. Choice B is incorrect because although a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds is concerning, abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus takes priority. Choice C is incorrect as abdominal distention, though indicative of an obstruction, is not as urgent as the sign of abdominal rigidity. Choice D is incorrect as the drainage of greenish fluid from a nasogastric tube in a client with a small bowel obstruction, while concerning, does not present as immediate a threat as the abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus.
3. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well for the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. obtain a serum potassium level
- B. administer the client's usual dose of insulin
- C. assess pupillary response to light
- D. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering IV fluids is crucial to address potential dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, especially if the client is unable to provide a clear history. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline will help rehydrate the client and address any electrolyte imbalances, which are common in clients with diabetes experiencing symptoms like abdominal cramping and vomiting. Obtaining a serum potassium level can be important but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of dehydration and confusion. Administering insulin should only be done after addressing hydration and electrolyte status. Assessing pupillary response to light is not the most critical action in this situation compared to addressing dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances.
4. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis whose Glasgow Coma Scale score changed from 10 to 7
- B. Subdural hematoma whose blood pressure changed from 150/80 mmHg to 170/60 mmHg
- C. Myxedema coma whose blood pressure changed from 80/50 mmHg to 70/40 mmHg
- D. Viral meningitis whose temperature changed from 101° F (38.3 C) to 102° F (38.9C)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral meningitis with a slight increase in temperature is less acute and complex compared to the other conditions. This change in temperature does not indicate a critical or urgent situation requiring immediate attention or intervention beyond the scope of a practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C present more significant changes in health status such as a decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale score, an increase in intracranial pressure indicated by blood pressure changes, and a significant drop in blood pressure, respectively. These changes require closer monitoring and intervention by registered nurses due to the higher acuity and complexity of care needed for these conditions.
5. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?
- A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm
- B. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction
- C. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation
- D. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.
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