Nursing Elites

1. A 13-year-old girl, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?

• A. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class
• B. Incorrectly drew up and administered too much insulin
• C. Was not hungry, so she skipped eating lunch
• D. Has had a cold and ear infection for the past two days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incorrect insulin administration is a common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering too much insulin can lead to uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where the body starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to directly cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Eating an extra peanut butter sandwich, skipping lunch, or having a cold and ear infection would not directly lead to the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.

2. The healthcare provider receives a report on four clients who are complaining of increased pain. Which client requires immediate attention by the healthcare provider?

• A. Burning pain due to a Morton’s neuroma
• B. Sharp pain related to a crushed femur
• C. Paresthesia of fingers due to carpal tunnel syndrome
• D. Stinging pain related to plantar fasciitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sharp pain related to a crushed femur indicates a severe condition and potential serious complications that require immediate attention. Crushed femur can lead to severe bleeding, nerve damage, or compartment syndrome, which are critical and life-threatening. The other choices, although painful, are less likely to present immediate life-threatening issues. Morton’s neuroma, carpal tunnel syndrome, and plantar fasciitis are painful conditions but are not typically associated with urgent, life-threatening complications like a crushed femur.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 6-month-old child. Which injection site is best for the nurse to use?

• A. Vastus lateralis
• B. Deltoid
• C. Ventrogluteal
• D. Dorsogluteal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to their limited muscle mass and safety. Infants do not have well-developed muscle mass, making the vastus lateralis the best option for IM injections. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults. Ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are not recommended for infants due to safety concerns, including the risk of damaging the sciatic nerve. Therefore, the correct choice is the vastus lateralis for IM injections in infants.

4. What intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm?

• A. Assess IV site frequently for signs of extravasation
• B. Monitor capillary refill distal to the infusion site
• C. Apply a topical anesthetic at the infusion site for burning
• D. Explain that temporary burning at the IV site may occur

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm is to assess the IV site frequently for signs of extravasation. Vesicants are agents that can cause tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Monitoring for signs of extravasation such as swelling, pain, or redness is crucial to prevent tissue damage and ensure prompt intervention if extravasation occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring capillary refill, applying a topical anesthetic for burning, and explaining temporary burning do not directly address the risk of extravasation associated with vesicant chemotherapeutic agents.

5. A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?

• A. Mechanical ventilation
• B. Platelet transfusion
• C. Loop diuretic therapy
• D. Cyanocobalamin administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.

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