HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. The nurse receives change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?
- A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm on the dressing
- B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
- C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
- D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing and fever and chills
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A collapsed lung with significant blood accumulation requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory compromise. Option A may also require attention, but the immediate threat to airway and breathing in option C takes precedence over the others. Option B has expected drainage after a mastectomy, and option D's fever and chills, while concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk as in option C.
2. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?
- A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
- B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
- C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
- D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping, and aspiration pneumonia. What is the priority nursing assessment that should be done before administering this medication?
- A. Ask the client about soft food preferences
- B. Auscultate the client’s breath sounds
- C. Obtain and record the client’s vital signs
- D. Determine which side of the body is weak
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client’s breath sounds. Assessing breath sounds is crucial in this scenario as it helps ensure that the client can safely swallow the oral antibiotic without aspirating. Unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping, and aspiration pneumonia indicate potential swallowing difficulties, making it essential to assess breath sounds for any signs of respiratory issues. Asking about food preferences (choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority before administering the medication. While obtaining vital signs (choice C) is important, assessing breath sounds takes precedence in this case. Determining which side of the body is weak (choice D) is not the priority assessment before administering the oral antibiotic.
4. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
- B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
- C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
- D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.
5. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well for the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. obtain a serum potassium level
- B. administer the client's usual dose of insulin
- C. assess pupillary response to light
- D. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering IV fluids is crucial to address potential dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, especially if the client is unable to provide a clear history. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline will help rehydrate the client and address any electrolyte imbalances, which are common in clients with diabetes experiencing symptoms like abdominal cramping and vomiting. Obtaining a serum potassium level can be important but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of dehydration and confusion. Administering insulin should only be done after addressing hydration and electrolyte status. Assessing pupillary response to light is not the most critical action in this situation compared to addressing dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances.
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