Nursing Elites

1. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rates the pain 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer the scheduled daily dose of lisinopril.
• B. Assess the client for postural hypotension.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Provide a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's blood pressure of 142/89 is within an acceptable range for someone with a history of hypertension. The client's headache with a pain rating of 5 does not warrant an immediate notification to the healthcare provider. Administering the scheduled dose of lisinopril is appropriate to manage the client's hypertension. Assessing the client for postural hypotension is relevant due to the client's age and hypertension history. Providing a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache is not necessary at this point as the pain level is moderate and can be managed with other interventions.

2. A woman at 24-weeks gestation who has fever, body aches, and has been coughing for the last 5 days is sent to the hospital with admission prescriptions for H1N1 influenza. Which action has the highest priority?

• A. Administer Ringer's Lactate IV 125ml/8 hours
• B. Obtain specimens for cultures
• C. Assign a private room
• D. Monitor vital signs q4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assigning a private room has the highest priority in this scenario. It helps prevent the spread of H1N1 influenza to other patients and protects both the patient and others from potential infection. Obtaining specimens for cultures and monitoring vital signs are important but do not address the immediate need to prevent the spread of the virus. Administering Ringer's Lactate IV is not the priority in this case as it does not directly address the infectious nature of the condition.

3. In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, if a child has a Gower sign, what behavior should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?

• A. Stands from sitting on the floor by using hands to walk up legs
• B. Exhibits muscular atrophy of upper and lower extremities
• C. Is unable to stand because of contractures of both hips
• D. Walks with an unsteady gait and slaps feet on the floor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Gower sign is a characteristic finding in Duchenne muscular dystrophy where a child uses hands to walk up the legs when standing from a sitting position due to proximal muscle weakness. This behavior is indicative of the child trying to compensate for weak hip and thigh muscles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific behavior associated with the Gower sign. Muscular atrophy, contractures of both hips, and an unsteady gait with foot slapping are not directly related to the Gower sign.

4. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2 °F, and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, a sign of dehydration. In this scenario, the child is showing signs of dehydration with increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a specific sign of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not a specific indicator of dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be present in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not directly related to dehydration.

5. When entering a client’s room to administer an 0900 IV antibiotic, the nurse finds that the client is engaged in sexual activity with a visitor. Which actions should the nurse implement?

• A. Ignore the behavior and administer the IV antibiotic
• B. Tell the client to stop the inappropriate behavior
• C. Leave the room and close the door quietly
• D. Complete an unusual occurrence report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to leave the room and close the door quietly. This response respects the client's privacy, maintains professionalism, and avoids interrupting the client's personal moment. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the behavior is not appropriate and may invade the client's privacy further. Choice B is incorrect as it can embarrass the client and the visitor, breaching their privacy and dignity. Choice D is also incorrect as the immediate priority is to respect the client's privacy and address the situation discreetly.

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