Nursing Elites

1. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rates the pain 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer the scheduled daily dose of lisinopril.
• B. Assess the client for postural hypotension.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Provide a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's blood pressure of 142/89 is within an acceptable range for someone with a history of hypertension. The client's headache with a pain rating of 5 does not warrant an immediate notification to the healthcare provider. Administering the scheduled dose of lisinopril is appropriate to manage the client's hypertension. Assessing the client for postural hypotension is relevant due to the client's age and hypertension history. Providing a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache is not necessary at this point as the pain level is moderate and can be managed with other interventions.

2. The client had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours?

• A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Monitor for the appearance of an incisional hernia
• C. Instruct the client to eat small frequent meals
• D. Measure hourly urinary output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urinary output is crucial during the first 24 postoperative hours to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and early detection of complications like dehydration or inadequate kidney perfusion. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not routinely necessary after gastric bypass surgery unless there are specific indications. Monitoring for an incisional hernia is important but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. Instructing the client to eat small frequent meals is essential for long-term dietary management after gastric bypass surgery, but not the most critical intervention during the initial 24 hours.

3. In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?

• A. Signs a no-self-harm contract
• B. Sleep for at least 6 hours nightly
• C. Attends group therapy every day
• D. Verbalizes a positive self-image

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Signs a no-self-harm contract. Ensuring the client’s immediate safety by having them commit to not engaging in self-harm is the highest priority after a suicide attempt. This measure aims to prevent further harm to the client. While sleep, group therapy, and self-image are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the immediate aftermath of a suicide attempt. Prioritizing the establishment of a no-self-harm contract creates a foundation for addressing other therapeutic goals in the client's care plan.

4. What action should the nurse take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology?

• A. Ensure the client remains NPO until all samples are collected
• B. Transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag
• C. Discard the initial sample and document the time it was obtained
• D. Document the time the client last ate or drank on the laboratory slip

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology is to transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag. This is important to ensure proper handling and prevent contamination of the sample. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to keep the client NPO until all samples are collected. Choice C is incorrect as the initial sample should not be discarded but rather transported to the laboratory. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the time the client last ate or drank is not directly relevant to the immediate action needed for the sputum sample.

5. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
• C. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• D. Atenolol (Tenormin)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.

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