Nursing Elites

1. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rates the pain 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer the scheduled daily dose of lisinopril.
• B. Assess the client for postural hypotension.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Provide a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's blood pressure of 142/89 is within an acceptable range for someone with a history of hypertension. The client's headache with a pain rating of 5 does not warrant an immediate notification to the healthcare provider. Administering the scheduled dose of lisinopril is appropriate to manage the client's hypertension. Assessing the client for postural hypotension is relevant due to the client's age and hypertension history. Providing a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache is not necessary at this point as the pain level is moderate and can be managed with other interventions.

2. When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Nausea
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.

3. The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?

• A. The fasting blood sugar was 120 mg/dL this morning
• B. Urine ketones have been negative for the past 6 months
• C. The hemoglobin A1C was 6.5% last week
• D. No diabetic ketoacidosis has occurred in 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.

4. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing’s sarcoma following an examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?

• A. Take analgesics regularly to manage pain
• B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
• C. Avoid weight-bearing on the affected knee until the injury heals
• D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to provide the client is to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is a type of cancer that necessitates prompt and aggressive treatment for the best possible outcome. While managing pain (Choice A) and monitoring swelling (Choice B) are important, addressing the underlying sarcoma is the priority. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of Ewing's sarcoma and may not be the most critical instruction at this point.

5. An adult client presents to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristic of Kaposi’s Sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family members. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood sample to determine if the client is HIV positive
• B. Send the family to the waiting area while conducting a head-to-toe assessment
• C. Complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV
• D. Ask the family members to wear gloves when touching the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV. Kaposi’s Sarcoma is commonly associated with HIV infection, and conducting a comprehensive assessment can provide crucial information on potential signs and symptoms related to HIV. This information is essential for providing appropriate care and treatment. Option A is not the priority at this moment, as the focus should be on assessing the client comprehensively first. Sending the family members away (Option B) may not be necessary if they are not interfering with the assessment process. While infection control is important, asking the family members to wear gloves (Option D) is not the most critical action to take in this situation.

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