Nursing Elites

1. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rates the pain 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer the scheduled daily dose of lisinopril.
• B. Assess the client for postural hypotension.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Provide a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's blood pressure of 142/89 is within an acceptable range for someone with a history of hypertension. The client's headache with a pain rating of 5 does not warrant an immediate notification to the healthcare provider. Administering the scheduled dose of lisinopril is appropriate to manage the client's hypertension. Assessing the client for postural hypotension is relevant due to the client's age and hypertension history. Providing a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache is not necessary at this point as the pain level is moderate and can be managed with other interventions.

2. The nurse is calculating the one-minute Apgar score for a newborn male infant and determines that his heart rate is 150 beats/minute, he has a vigorous cry, his muscle tone is good with total flexion, he has quick reflex irritability, and his color is dusky and cyanotic. What Apgar score should the nurse assign to the infant?

• A. 8
• B. 9
• C. 6
• D. 7

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8. The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a good heart rate, vigorous cry, good muscle tone, and quick reflex irritability, which would total to 8. The only factor affecting the score is the cyanotic color, which could indicate potential respiratory or circulatory issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the overall assessment provided in the scenario.

3. The nurse has explained safety precautions and infant care to a primigravida mother and observes the mother as she gives care to her newborn during the first two days of rooming-in. Which action indicates the mother understands the instruction?

• A. Aspirates the newborn’s nares using a syringe
• B. Applies a dressing to the cord after the newborn’s bath
• C. Breastfeeds the infant every hour during the night
• D. Positions the infant supine in the crib to sleep

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the infant supine in the crib to sleep is the correct action that indicates the mother understands the instruction. This position is recommended to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Choice A is incorrect as it is not a routine or recommended practice to aspirate the newborn’s nares using a syringe without a specific medical indication. Choice B is incorrect because applying a dressing to the cord after the newborn's bath is not a standard care practice. Choice C is incorrect because breastfeeding every hour during the night is excessive and not a recommended feeding schedule for a newborn.

4. When caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Lactate
• B. Glucose
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Creatinine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with Cushing syndrome, monitoring glucose levels is crucial as Cushing syndrome often leads to hyperglycemia. Elevated glucose levels are a common manifestation of Cushing syndrome due to increased cortisol levels. Monitoring glucose helps in assessing and managing the client's condition effectively. Lactate levels are not typically affected by Cushing syndrome. Hemoglobin and creatinine levels are important for other conditions like anemia and kidney function, but they are not the priority in Cushing syndrome.

5. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

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