Nursing Elites

1. A male client attends a community support program for mentally impaired and chemically abusing clients. The client tells the PN that his drugs of choice are cocaine and heroin. What is the greatest health risk for this client?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Glaucoma
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis. Hepatitis is the greatest health risk for this client due to the potential for contracting the disease through needle-sharing, common among drug users. This can lead to serious liver complications. While hypertension, glaucoma, and diabetes are all important health concerns, they are not directly associated with the drug abuse mentioned in the scenario.

2. Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with tuberculosis (TB)?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Contact precautions
• C. Airborne precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne precautions. Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted via airborne particles, thus requiring airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using an N95 respirator to filter out small infectious particles. Droplet precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through large respiratory droplets. Contact precautions (Choice B) are for direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Standard precautions (Choice D) are used for all patients to prevent the spread of infection through blood, bodily fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.

3. The PN notes that a UAP is ambulating a male client who had a stroke and has right-sided weakness. The UAP is walking on the client's left side. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Instruct the UAP to walk on the client's affected side
• B. Take over the ambulation and provide guidance to the UAP immediately
• C. Provide the client with an assistive device, such as a cane or walker
• D. Tell the UAP to take the client back to his room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take is to instruct the UAP to walk on the client’s affected side. This is essential to provide the necessary support and prevent falls, especially when the client has weakness on one side due to a stroke. Walking on the affected side helps provide stability and assistance to the weaker side. Choice B is incorrect because it would be more appropriate for the PN to provide immediate guidance and correct the UAP's positioning rather than taking over the task completely. Choice C is incorrect because while assistive devices may be beneficial, the immediate concern is the UAP's positioning during ambulation, not providing the client with an assistive device. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication to return the client to his room unless it is necessary for his safety or well-being.

4. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?

• A. Calcium
• B. Phosphorus
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.

5. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Gastric residual volumes
• C. Bowel sounds
• D. Urinary and stool output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

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