Nursing Elites

1. The PN observes a UAP preparing to exit a client's room. The UAP's hands appear visibly soiled as the UAP uses a hand rub for 19 seconds to cleanse the hands. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Confirm that the UAP completed hand hygiene correctly
• B. Instruct the UAP to wash the hands for one minute
• C. Ask the UAP why the hands were so obviously soiled
• D. Advise the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When hands are visibly soiled, they should be washed with soap and water for at least 20 seconds. However, when using hand rub, it should be applied for at least 30 seconds to be effective. In this scenario, the UAP's hands were visibly soiled, indicating the need for thorough cleaning. Advising the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds is essential to ensure proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of spreading infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because confirming completion of hand hygiene, instructing to wash for one minute, or asking why the hands were soiled do not address the immediate need for proper hand hygiene in the given situation.

2. Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics that the nurse should monitor for in patients?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Constipation
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of opioid analgesics due to the slowing of gastrointestinal motility. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased peristalsis and increased water absorption, resulting in constipation. Monitoring for constipation is crucial to prevent discomfort or complications like bowel obstruction. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect of opioid analgesics. Hypertension (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not typically associated with opioid use.

3. The PN is caring for an older client who was informed about the diagnosis of terminal cancer two days ago. Which intervention would be most helpful for the client's spouse at this time?

• A. Consultation with the case manager and hospital chaplain
• B. Visiting after procedures are done to avoid seeing the client in pain
• C. Participating in the client's care within his/her capabilities and desires
• D. Information about palliative and hospice care services

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing information about palliative and hospice care services can help the spouse understand the options for managing the client's symptoms and improving the quality of life. This also provides support and guidance during a difficult time. Consulting with the case manager and hospital chaplain may be beneficial for emotional support but may not address the practical aspects of care. Visiting after procedures are done to avoid seeing the client in pain may not foster open communication and support. While participating in the client's care is important, providing information about palliative and hospice care services is the most helpful intervention in this scenario.

4. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

• A. Assist the client with a hot bath
• B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
• C. Face the client directly when speaking
• D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

5. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
• B. Cystic fibrosis
• C. Down syndrome
• D. Sickle cell anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.

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