HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. The PN observes a UAP preparing to exit a client's room. The UAP's hands appear visibly soiled as the UAP uses a hand rub for 19 seconds to cleanse the hands. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Confirm that the UAP completed hand hygiene correctly
- B. Instruct the UAP to wash the hands for one minute
- C. Ask the UAP why the hands were so obviously soiled
- D. Advise the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When hands are visibly soiled, they should be washed with soap and water for at least 20 seconds. However, when using hand rub, it should be applied for at least 30 seconds to be effective. In this scenario, the UAP's hands were visibly soiled, indicating the need for thorough cleaning. Advising the UAP to use the hand rub for 30 seconds is essential to ensure proper hand hygiene and reduce the risk of spreading infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because confirming completion of hand hygiene, instructing to wash for one minute, or asking why the hands were soiled do not address the immediate need for proper hand hygiene in the given situation.
2. A client reports being able to swallow only small bites of solid food and liquids for the last 3 months. The PN should assess the client for what additional information?
- A. Past traumatic injury to the neck
- B. Daily consumption of hot beverages
- C. History of alcohol or tobacco use
- D. Daily dietary intake of roughage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: History of alcohol or tobacco use. A history of alcohol or tobacco use is significant as both are risk factors for esophageal cancer or other esophageal disorders that could cause difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). This information helps in evaluating the underlying cause of the symptom. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. While a past traumatic injury to the neck could potentially cause swallowing difficulties, given the chronic nature of the symptom in this case, it is more important to focus on potential risk factors associated with esophageal disorders like alcohol and tobacco use. Daily consumption of hot beverages and daily dietary intake of roughage are less likely to be directly related to the client's current swallowing issue.
3. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. High protein, low sodium
- B. Low protein, high potassium
- C. Low sodium, low potassium
- D. High calcium, low phosphorus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.
4. A 50-year-old female is in the hospital with peripheral artery disease. In the nursing care plan, the nurse lists the following nursing diagnosis: Ineffective tissue perfusion: peripheral related to venous stasis. Which of the following would not be an appropriate nursing action to list in the implementation of this diagnosis?
- A. Keep the client's extremities cold
- B. Check for strength and symmetry of peripheral pulses
- C. Keep the client's legs elevated
- D. Monitor for any constrictions, such as clothes or covers that are too tight around the legs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Keeping the client’s extremities cold would worsen perfusion issues and is not recommended. In peripheral artery disease, maintaining warmth is crucial to promote vasodilation and improve blood flow. Checking peripheral pulses for strength and symmetry, keeping the client's legs elevated to reduce venous stasis, and monitoring for constrictions that may impair circulation are appropriate nursing actions to enhance tissue perfusion in this case. Thus, option A is incorrect as it would hinder perfusion in the affected extremities.
5. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Down syndrome
- D. Sickle cell anemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
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