HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. The PN determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the PN take?
- A. Protect the client's feet from injury
- B. Apply a heating pad to the affected area
- C. Keep the client's feet elevated
- D. Assess the feet and legs for jaundice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protecting the client's feet from injury is the most appropriate action for a client with cirrhosis experiencing peripheral neuropathy. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to a loss of sensation, making the client prone to unnoticed injuries. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) is contraindicated as it may cause burns or further damage to the affected area. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy and may not provide significant benefit. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice (Choice D) is important for monitoring liver function in clients with cirrhosis, but in this case, the priority is to prevent injury to the feet due to decreased sensation.
2. During the immediate postoperative period following a total hip replacement, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to use a walker or cane when ambulating
- B. Keep the client's hip aligned with knees abducted
- C. Teach the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing
- D. Monitor urinary flow via an indwelling catheter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the client's hip aligned with the knees abducted is crucial to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis, which is a priority immediately after total hip replacement surgery. This position helps maintain the stability of the new hip joint. Encouraging the client to use a walker or cane (Choice A) is important but not as critical as ensuring proper hip alignment. Teaching the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing (Choice C) is a good practice but not as essential as maintaining hip alignment. Monitoring urinary flow via an indwelling catheter (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing complications immediately after a total hip replacement.
3. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?
- A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
- B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
- C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
- D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.
4. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
- A. Olfactory nerve
- B. Optic nerve
- C. Trigeminal nerve
- D. Vagus nerve
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).
5. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?
- A. Amikacin
- B. Moxifloxacin
- C. Rifabutin
- D. Cycloserine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.
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