Nursing Elites

1. An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer. Upon arrival at the outpatient clinic for a scheduled treatment, the client reports increasing fatigue to the nurse who is taking the client's vital signs. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately
• B. Offer to reschedule the treatment for the following week
• C. Plan to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes
• D. Reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy. In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to reinforce the importance of rest and adequate sleep. It is crucial to address the client's increasing fatigue by promoting self-care strategies such as additional rest periods and ensuring plenty of sleep. Rescheduling the treatment is not necessary for fatigue, and vital sign monitoring every 30 minutes may not directly address the client's reported symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately is not the first-line intervention for increasing fatigue, as this symptom can be managed through education and self-care recommendations.

2. A client post-mastectomy is concerned about the risk of lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge instructions to minimize this risk?

• A. Wear compression garments on the affected arm.
• B. Avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm.
• C. Perform vigorous exercises to strengthen the affected arm.
• D. Keep the affected arm elevated at all times.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To minimize the risk of lymphedema after a mastectomy, it is essential to instruct the client to avoid venipunctures and blood pressure measurements on the affected arm. These procedures can lead to trauma or impede lymphatic flow, increasing the risk of lymphedema. Wearing compression garments helps manage lymphedema but is not preventive. Performing vigorous exercises can strain the affected arm and increase the risk of lymphedema. Keeping the affected arm elevated at all times is unnecessary and not an effective preventive measure against lymphedema.

3. An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the nurse?

• A. No bowel movement for two days
• B. Mother assists child in changing positions
• C. Weights are touching the foot of the bed
• D. Child is able to move the toes freely when tickled

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In 90-90 traction, the weights should hang freely and not touch the foot of the bed to maintain proper traction and bone alignment. Option A is not necessarily a concern as bowel movements can be influenced by various factors, including diet changes and pain medication. Option B indicates good caregiver involvement, promoting comfort and preventing complications. Option D demonstrates neurovascular function, which is a positive finding. Therefore, the weights touching the foot of the bed is the finding that requires immediate attention to ensure the effectiveness of the traction.

4. How does the home care nurse determine that a 78-year-old client is unable to remain in his current residence alone?

• A. The goals set by the client
• B. The learning level of the client
• C. Assessing the home environment
• D. The distractions in the client's home

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the home environment. This process is vital in evaluating whether an elderly client can safely live independently. Factors like safety hazards and the client's ability to handle daily activities are considered during this assessment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because determining the client's ability to remain in his residence alone relies more on evaluating the home environment for safety and suitability rather than the client's goals, learning level, or distractions in the home.

5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

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