Nursing Elites

1. An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer. Upon arrival at the outpatient clinic for a scheduled treatment, the client reports increasing fatigue to the nurse who is taking the client's vital signs. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately
• B. Offer to reschedule the treatment for the following week
• C. Plan to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes
• D. Reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy. In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to reinforce the importance of rest and adequate sleep. It is crucial to address the client's increasing fatigue by promoting self-care strategies such as additional rest periods and ensuring plenty of sleep. Rescheduling the treatment is not necessary for fatigue, and vital sign monitoring every 30 minutes may not directly address the client's reported symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately is not the first-line intervention for increasing fatigue, as this symptom can be managed through education and self-care recommendations.

2. What is the primary purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to an Rh-negative mother after childbirth?

• A. To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies
• B. To treat anemia in the newborn
• C. To increase the mother's white blood cell count
• D. To prevent infection in the newborn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies. RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother to prevent the development of antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells. This prevents Rh sensitization, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future Rh-positive pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because RhoGAM is not used to treat anemia in the newborn, increase the mother's white blood cell count, or prevent infection in the newborn.

3. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
• B. To promote wound healing
• C. To reduce postoperative pain
• D. To maintain body temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.

4. A client on bedrest refuses to wear the prescribed pneumatic compression devices after surgery. Which action should the PN implement in response to the client's refusal?

• A. Emphasize the importance of active foot flexion
• B. Check the surgical dressing
• C. Complete an incident report
• D. Explain the use of an incentive spirometer every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the PN to implement when a client refuses pneumatic compression devices is to emphasize the importance of active foot flexion. Active foot flexion exercises can help prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in clients who are not using the compression devices. Encouraging some form of circulation-promoting activity is crucial to reduce the risks associated with immobility. Checking the surgical dressing (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action to address the refusal of compression devices. Completing an incident report (Choice C) is not necessary in this situation as the client's refusal is not an incident. Explaining the use of an incentive spirometer (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the refusal of compression devices for DVT prevention.

5. At what age does a 9-year-old child typically lose which of the following teeth?

• A. Central incisor
• B. Second molar
• C. Lateral incisor
• D. Cuspid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A 9-year-old child typically loses their central incisors, not the lateral incisors or second molars. The central incisors are usually among the first teeth that children lose around 6 to 7 years of age, as part of the natural process of shedding primary teeth to make way for permanent teeth. The second molars and cuspids are typically lost later in the mixed dentition phase. Therefore, option A, 'Central incisor,' is the correct answer.

Similar Questions