Nursing Elites

1. An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer. Upon arrival at the outpatient clinic for a scheduled treatment, the client reports increasing fatigue to the nurse who is taking the client's vital signs. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately
• B. Offer to reschedule the treatment for the following week
• C. Plan to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes
• D. Reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy. In this scenario, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to reinforce the importance of rest and adequate sleep. It is crucial to address the client's increasing fatigue by promoting self-care strategies such as additional rest periods and ensuring plenty of sleep. Rescheduling the treatment is not necessary for fatigue, and vital sign monitoring every 30 minutes may not directly address the client's reported symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately is not the first-line intervention for increasing fatigue, as this symptom can be managed through education and self-care recommendations.

2. A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• B. Assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs.
• C. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs. The client's symptoms of feeling weak and lightheaded could indicate potential issues like hypotension or dehydration, which need to be assessed promptly. Encouraging fluids (Choice A) could be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after the client has been stabilized and assessed.

3. Which of the following best describes the role of insulin in the body?

• A. Insulin helps break down glucose into energy for the body
• B. Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells
• C. Insulin converts excess glucose into fat for storage
• D. Insulin increases the breakdown of protein into amino acids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells, where it can be used for energy production. Choice A is incorrect because insulin doesn't break down glucose but rather helps cells take up glucose. Choice C is incorrect as insulin does not directly convert glucose into fat; excess glucose is stored as fat by other processes. Choice D is incorrect as insulin does not increase the breakdown of protein into amino acids; its primary role is in glucose metabolism.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.

5. Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

• A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine
• B. Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees
• C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
• D. Changing the ventilator circuit daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.

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