which task could the nurse safely delegate to the uap
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HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. Which task could the nurse safely delegate to the UAP?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a stable child is a task that can be safely delegated to a UAP. This task does not require nursing assessment or clinical judgment. Choice B involves assessment, which requires the nurse's clinical judgment. Choice C involves recording client goals during staff rounds, which may require interpretation and understanding of the goals set. Choice D involves evaluating a client's pain following medication administration, which requires assessment and clinical judgment by a nurse.

2. A child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase. Based on this diagnosis, which nursing intervention should the nurse plan to include in the child's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours. Monitoring blood pressure frequently is crucial in managing glomerulonephritis, as hypertension is a common complication during the acute edematous phase. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the specific needs of a child with glomerulonephritis. Choice B is incorrect as excessive activity may not be suitable during the acute phase, as rest and monitoring are more important. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on monitoring vital signs rather than meal options.

3. After a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, what is the most important instruction the nurse should give the client regarding post-operative care at home?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring the incision sites for signs of infection is crucial after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Infections can lead to serious complications if not detected early. While avoiding heavy lifting and following a low-fat diet are important aspects of recovery, monitoring for infection takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate post-operative well-being. Therefore, option C is the correct answer as it addresses the most critical aspect of post-operative care.

4. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.

5. In which type of cardiomyopathy does septal involvement occur?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septal involvement is a characteristic feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, where the septal wall of the heart thickens. This thickening can obstruct blood flow out of the heart, leading to complications such as arrhythmias and heart failure. This differentiates it from other types of cardiomyopathy. In congestive cardiomyopathy (choice A), the heart's chambers become enlarged and weakened, but there is no specific mention of septal involvement. Dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B) involves dilation and impaired contraction of the heart chambers, not specifically septal thickening. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice D) is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill properly, without direct involvement of the septum.

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