a home health nurse knows that a 70 year old male client who is convalescing at home following a hip replacement is at risk for developing decubitus u
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. A home health nurse knows that a 70-year-old male client who is convalescing at home following a hip replacement is at risk for developing decubitus ulcers. Which physical characteristic of aging contributes to such a risk?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thinning of the skin with loss of elasticity is the physical characteristic of aging that contributes to an increased risk of developing decubitus ulcers. As individuals age, the skin becomes thinner and loses its elasticity, making it more susceptible to damage from pressure, leading to the formation of pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly contribute to the development of decubitus ulcers in this context.

2. A public health nurse is working with a community to develop a disaster response plan. Which of the following is the priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying available resources and services is the priority action when developing a disaster response plan. This step is crucial as it helps the community understand what resources and services are already in place and what additional support may be needed during a disaster. Conducting disaster drills, educating the community about disaster preparedness, and developing a communication plan are important steps in disaster preparedness but come after identifying available resources and services. Without knowing the available resources, it would be challenging to effectively plan and respond to a disaster.

3. In terms of CHN practice, how is the nurse in the community trained?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In community health nursing practice, nurses are trained as generalists in nursing. They receive education that equips them to address a wide range of health concerns in the community. Choice A, nurse-midwife, is incorrect as it refers to a specific role focusing on childbirth and maternal health. Choice B, practice nursing, is vague and does not specifically describe the training of community health nurses. Choice D, midwife, is also incorrect as it refers to a specialized role in maternal and newborn care, different from the generalist training of community health nurses.

4. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

5. A pre-term baby develops nasal flaring, cyanosis, and diminished breath sounds on one side. The provider's diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax. Which procedure should the nurse prepare for first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insertion of a chest tube. In a case of spontaneous pneumothorax, the primary intervention is to insert a chest tube. This procedure allows the trapped air to escape from the pleural space, relieving pressure and enabling the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial interventions for spontaneous pneumothorax. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is indicated for cardiac arrest, oxygen therapy may provide supportive care but does not address the underlying issue of trapped air in the pleural space, and assisted ventilation may be needed later but is not the first-line treatment for a pneumothorax.

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