Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding family planning?

• A. Family planning services should be made available to those who need them.
• B. It is the responsibility of every parent to determine whether to have children, when, or how many.
• C. Family planning is geared towards individual and family welfare.
• D. The ultimate goal of family planning is to prevent pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the ultimate goal of family planning is not solely to prevent pregnancies but to promote individual and family well-being. Family planning encompasses various aspects such as helping individuals and families make informed choices about the number and spacing of their children, access to healthcare services, and overall reproductive health. Option A is correct as making family planning services available to those who need them is essential for promoting reproductive health. Option B is also correct as it emphasizes the role of parents in making decisions about having children. Option C is correct as family planning indeed aims to improve the welfare of individuals and families. Therefore, option D is not correct as the ultimate goal of family planning is not limited to preventing pregnancies, but it includes broader aspects of promoting health and well-being.

2. A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. MMR
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Human papillomavirus
• D. Pneumococcal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women to prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Option A, MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine, is not indicated during pregnancy. Option C, Human papillomavirus vaccine, is recommended for prevention of HPV infections but is not specifically indicated during pregnancy. Option D, Pneumococcal vaccine, is important for certain populations but is not the priority vaccine for a pregnant woman in this scenario.

3. Which bioterrorism agent poses a high risk for use as a potential biological weapon due to its ability to be readily transmitted through several portals of entry?

• A. Anthrax.
• B. Smallpox.
• C. Botulism.
• D. Tularemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Anthrax. Anthrax is a high-risk bioterrorism agent because it can be readily transmitted through multiple portals of entry such as inhalation, ingestion, or skin contact. This makes it a significant concern for use as a biological weapon. Smallpox, though highly contagious, is not known for multiple portals of entry like Anthrax. Botulism is a potent toxin but is not as easily transmissible through various routes as Anthrax. Tularemia, while a serious bacterial infection, does not have the same ease of transmission through multiple portals of entry as Anthrax.

4. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

• A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
• B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
• C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
• D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

5. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

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