Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding family planning?

• A. Family planning services should be made available to those who need them.
• B. It is the responsibility of every parent to determine whether to have children, when, or how many.
• C. Family planning is geared towards individual and family welfare.
• D. The ultimate goal of family planning is to prevent pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the ultimate goal of family planning is not solely to prevent pregnancies but to promote individual and family well-being. Family planning encompasses various aspects such as helping individuals and families make informed choices about the number and spacing of their children, access to healthcare services, and overall reproductive health. Option A is correct as making family planning services available to those who need them is essential for promoting reproductive health. Option B is also correct as it emphasizes the role of parents in making decisions about having children. Option C is correct as family planning indeed aims to improve the welfare of individuals and families. Therefore, option D is not correct as the ultimate goal of family planning is not limited to preventing pregnancies, but it includes broader aspects of promoting health and well-being.

2. The nurse at a health fair has taken a client's blood pressure twice, 10 minutes apart, in the same arm while the client is seated. The nurse records the two blood pressures of 172/104 mm Hg and 164/98 mm Hg. What is the appropriate nursing action in response to these readings?

• A. Refer the client to a nutritionist after providing health teaching about a low-sodium diet.
• B. Place the client in a recumbent position and call the paramedics for transport to the hospital.
• C. Talk with the client to assess whether there is stress in the client's life and refer to a counseling service.
• D. Take the client's blood pressure in the other arm and then schedule a healthcare practitioner's appointment for as soon as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate nursing action in response to significantly high blood pressure readings like 172/104 mm Hg and 164/98 mm Hg is to confirm the readings by taking the blood pressure in the other arm. This can help rule out any error or issue specific to that arm. The nurse should then schedule a healthcare practitioner's appointment for as soon as possible to further assess the client's condition and determine the appropriate intervention. Choice A is incorrect because solely referring the client to a nutritionist for a low-sodium diet without further assessment or confirmation of the blood pressure readings is premature. Choice B is incorrect as the client is already seated, and calling paramedics for immediate transport to the hospital is not warranted based solely on the blood pressure readings provided. Choice C is incorrect as stress may not be the sole reason for the high blood pressure readings, and further assessment is required before referring the client to counseling services.

3. A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Blood culture
• C. Sputum culture
• D. PPD intradermal test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.

4. The nurse is caring for an acutely ill 10-year-old client. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Rapid bounding pulse
• B. Temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius
• C. Profuse diaphoresis
• D. Slow, irregular respirations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, slow, irregular respirations. In an acutely ill child, this assessment can indicate impending respiratory failure or neurological compromise, necessitating immediate intervention. Rapid bounding pulse (choice A) may indicate tachycardia but is not as immediately concerning as compromised respirations. A temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius (choice B) is elevated but may not be the most urgent concern unless accompanied by other symptoms. Profuse diaphoresis (choice C) can indicate increased sympathetic activity but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.

5. In reviewing the assessment data of a client suspected of having diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects which of the following after a water deprivation test?

• A. Increased edema and weight gain
• B. Unchanged urine specific gravity
• C. Rapid protein excretion
• D. Decreased blood potassium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a water deprivation test in a client suspected of having diabetes insipidus, the nurse would expect the urine specific gravity to remain unchanged. This occurs because in diabetes insipidus, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine, leading to a low urine specific gravity even after water deprivation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased edema and weight gain are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Rapid protein excretion is not directly related to the condition, and decreased blood potassium is not a common outcome of a water deprivation test for diabetes insipidus.

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