Nursing Elites

1. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

2. Which bioterrorism agent poses a high risk for use as a potential biological weapon due to its ability to be readily transmitted through several portals of entry?

• A. Anthrax.
• B. Smallpox.
• C. Botulism.
• D. Tularemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Anthrax. Anthrax is a high-risk bioterrorism agent because it can be readily transmitted through multiple portals of entry such as inhalation, ingestion, or skin contact. This makes it a significant concern for use as a biological weapon. Smallpox, though highly contagious, is not known for multiple portals of entry like Anthrax. Botulism is a potent toxin but is not as easily transmissible through various routes as Anthrax. Tularemia, while a serious bacterial infection, does not have the same ease of transmission through multiple portals of entry as Anthrax.

3. In the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in a 2-month-old infant, which nursing approach should be the priority?

• A. Remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision
• B. Initiate oral feedings when alert
• C. Introduce the parents to the suture line cleansing protocol
• D. Position the infant on the back after feedings throughout the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing approach in the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair in an infant is to remove protective arm devices one at a time for short periods with supervision. This approach helps prevent injury to the surgical site while ensuring the infant's comfort and safety. Choice B is incorrect as initiating oral feedings immediately after surgery may not be appropriate and could compromise the surgical site. Choice C is incorrect as introducing parents to the suture line cleansing protocol is important but not the immediate priority. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the infant on the back after feedings is not specific to the immediate postoperative period for a cleft lip repair.

4. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

5. Which of the following is a contribution of community health nurses to the community's health?

• A. providing health education to vulnerable populations
• B. coordinating access to integrated care for the population
• C. developing comprehensive health care systems in various settings
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Community health nurses play a vital role in promoting community health by providing health education to vulnerable populations (Choice A), coordinating access to integrated care for the population (Choice B), and developing comprehensive health care systems in various settings (Choice C). These contributions work together to enhance the overall health and well-being of the community, making choice D, 'all of the above,' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all essential aspects of the multifaceted approach that community health nurses take to improve the health outcomes of the community.

Similar Questions