during the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma and is receiving oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute the nurse would be most
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023

1. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following signs of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Digoxin toxicity often presents with bradycardia, which is a common sign of toxicity associated with this medication. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically seen with digoxin toxicity. Hypotension (Choice B) can occur but is less specific to digoxin toxicity. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, monitoring for bradycardia is crucial in clients receiving digoxin to detect toxicity early.

3. You are teaching a client about the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) planned for post-operative care. Which statement indicates further teaching may be needed by the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: PCA allows patients to self-administer pain medication within prescribed limits, without the need to call the nurse before taking an additional dose. Choice B suggests a misunderstanding of how PCA works, as the patient should be educated that they can self-administer doses within the safety parameters set by the healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate proper understanding of PCA, hence are not indicative of needing further teaching.

4. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

5. Barangay Mabulaklak has poor hygienic practices and poor environmental conditions. These are contributing factors to which of the following disease conditions?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Poor hygienic practices and poor environmental conditions often create an environment conducive to the spread of parasites. Parasitism refers to the condition where parasites live on or in a host organism, potentially causing harm. In this scenario, the unsanitary conditions in Barangay Mabulaklak can lead to an increased risk of parasitic infections. The other options, influenza, hepatitis B, and measles, are not directly linked to poor hygiene and environmental conditions as parasitism is.

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