Nursing Elites

1. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

2. What are the requirements and qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor?

• A. BSN, RN
• B. at least 5 years of experience in public health
• C. Master's in public health
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To become a regional nurse supervisor, one must possess a BSN and RN credentials to ensure clinical competency. Additionally, a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health is required to demonstrate a solid understanding of the field. Lastly, holding a Master's degree in public health is essential for leadership and decision-making roles. Therefore, all the choices (BSN, RN; at least 5 years of experience in public health; Master's in public health) are necessary qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor.

3. Which of the following characteristics apply to 2 to 3-year-old children?

• A. Prefers to feed themselves
• B. Eats very small nutritious meals a day rather than 3 large meals
• C. Can speak in longer sentences
• D. Can use a toothbrush properly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. During the age of 2 to 3 years old, children tend to eat very small, nutritious meals throughout the day rather than having three large meals. This behavior is typical for this age group as their appetites fluctuate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while children of this age may start to prefer feeding themselves and begin using a toothbrush with assistance, they typically do not speak in longer sentences at this stage.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is receiving lithium (Lithobid). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Lithium can lead to hyponatremia by affecting sodium balance in the body. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is unlikely with lithium use. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and hypercalcemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with lithium therapy for bipolar disorder.

5. The nurse is teaching a group of adults about modifiable cardiac risk factors. Which of the following should the nurse focus on first?

• A. Weight reduction
• B. Stress management
• C. Physical exercise
• D. Smoking cessation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, smoking cessation. Smoking is a major and modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease. It is often the highest priority in cardiac risk reduction because stopping smoking has immediate and long-term benefits for heart health. Choices A, B, and C are also important in reducing cardiac risk factors, but smoking cessation takes precedence due to its significant impact on cardiovascular health.

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