HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?
- A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
- B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
- C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
- D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.
2. A nurse is calculating a client's fluid intake over the past 8 hr. Which of the following items should the nurse plan to document on the client's intake and output record as 120 mL of fluid?
- A. 2 cups of soup
- B. 1 quart of water
- C. 8 oz of ice chips
- D. 6 oz of tea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 8 oz of ice chips. When calculating fluid intake, the nurse should document half of the volume of ice chips to account for the air in between the chips. Therefore, 8 oz of ice chips equals 120 mL of fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not equate to 120 mL of fluid intake as per the given scenario. Choice A, 2 cups of soup, is more than 120 mL. Choice B, 1 quart of water, is significantly more than 120 mL. Choice D, 6 oz of tea, is less than 120 mL.
3. A client who is post-operative from a carotid endarterectomy is experiencing difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a prescribed antiemetic.
- B. Assess the client’s airway and respiratory status.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed.
- D. Encourage the client to take small sips of water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client’s airway and respiratory status (Choice B). Difficulty swallowing after carotid endarterectomy could indicate swelling or nerve damage affecting swallowing, which may compromise the airway. Assessing the airway and respiratory status is crucial to ensure the client's ability to breathe. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not the priority as the primary concern is airway patency. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) can help with swallowing difficulties but does not address the immediate risk to the airway. Encouraging the client to take small sips of water (Choice D) is contraindicated if there is a risk of compromised airway due to swallowing difficulties.
4. A nurse is reviewing the immunization schedule of an 11-month-old infant. What immunizations does the nurse expect the infant to have previously received?
- A. Pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles
- B. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio
- C. Rubella, polio, tuberculosis, and pertussis
- D. Measles, mumps, rubella, and tuberculosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio. By 11 months of age, infants should have received doses of these vaccines as part of the immunization schedule. Choice A is incorrect because measles is usually given later in the schedule. Choice C is incorrect as rubella is usually given as part of the MMR vaccine, not individually, and tuberculosis is not routinely given as a vaccine in early infancy. Choice D is incorrect because mumps is not part of the recommended vaccines at 11 months of age.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.