Nursing Elites

1. A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior.
• C. Praise the client for the apparent improvement.
• D. Discuss the client's progress with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.

2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions.
• D. Encourage the client to express feelings about withdrawal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, the first intervention the nurse should implement is to monitor the client's vital signs. Vital sign monitoring is crucial to assess for any potential complications such as hypertension, tachycardia, fever, or other signs of autonomic hyperactivity. Administering medication like lorazepam (Ativan) would come after assessing the vital signs to determine the need for pharmacological intervention. Placing the client on seizure precautions is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence to ensure immediate safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings about withdrawal is a supportive intervention but does not address the immediate physiological risk associated with alcohol withdrawal.

3. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Excessive work activity.
• B. Decreased need for sleep.
• C. Medication management.
• D. Inflated self-esteem.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority is to manage the client's medication adherence to prevent escalation of manic behavior. Inflated self-esteem is the highest priority as it indicates the client's potential for harmful behaviors due to lack of medication compliance. While excessive work activity and decreased need for sleep are characteristics of mania, they are not as immediately concerning as the risk of harm related to inflated self-esteem.

4. A male client who is participating in an anger management assignment asks if he can make a leather belt in occupational therapy. The client begins pounding the leather vigorously with a mallet to imprint designs on the belt. What defense mechanism is the client using?

• A. Sublimation
• B. Suppression
• C. Regression
• D. Compensation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sublimation. Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities, such as art or work. In this scenario, the client is channeling his anger into a creative and constructive task like making a leather belt. Choice B, Suppression, involves consciously pushing down or hiding feelings rather than expressing them through alternate means. Choice C, Regression, refers to reverting to earlier, immature behaviors when faced with stress. Choice D, Compensation, involves making up for a perceived weakness in one area by excelling in another, which is not demonstrated in the scenario provided.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) to a client on the psychiatric unit. Which complaint related to administration of this drug should the nurse expect this client to make?

• A. My mouth feels like cotton.
• B. That medication gives me indigestion.
• C. This pill gives me diarrhea.
• D. My urine looks pink.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of MAO inhibitors like phenelzine due to their anticholinergic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as indigestion, diarrhea, and pink urine are not commonly associated side effects of phenelzine.

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