Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working in the emergency room of a children's hospital admits a child whose injuries could have resulted from abuse. Which statement most accurately describes the nurse's responsibility in cases of suspected child abuse?

• A. Obtain objective data such as x-rays before reporting suspicions.
• B. Confirm suspicions of abuse with the physician.
• C. Report any case of suspected child abuse.
• D. Document injuries to confirm suspected abuse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any case of suspected child abuse.' Nurses are mandated reporters, which means they are legally obligated to report any suspicions of child abuse to appropriate authorities to ensure the child's safety. This responsibility overrides the need to gather additional data or confirm suspicions with others before reporting. Choice A is incorrect because delaying reporting to gather more data may risk the child's safety. Choice B is incorrect because reporting suspicions promptly is crucial, and waiting to confirm with another healthcare provider could delay necessary intervention. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to report suspicions promptly rather than focusing on documenting injuries to confirm abuse.

2. A client with anorexia nervosa is being treated in an inpatient unit. Which intervention is a priority for the nurse?

• A. Encourage the client to exercise to build muscle mass.
• B. Provide liquid supplements between meals.
• C. Allow the client to choose their own meals.
• D. Monitor the client's weight daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the client's weight daily is a priority intervention for a nurse caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. Weight monitoring is crucial in assessing the client's progress and adjusting treatment as necessary to prevent complications such as refeeding syndrome, electrolyte imbalances, and cardiac issues. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can exacerbate the client's unhealthy relationship with food and body image. Providing liquid supplements (Choice B) is important but may not be the priority over monitoring weight. Allowing the client to choose their own meals (Choice C) may not be suitable initially as they may make unhealthy choices or avoid meals altogether.

3. A client with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. The nurse should monitor for which early sign of alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Seizures
• B. Visual hallucinations
• C. Tremors
• D. Delirium tremens

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tremors are an early sign of alcohol withdrawal. They are caused by hyperactivity of the autonomic nervous system and are a common symptom during the early stages of withdrawal. Monitoring tremors is crucial as they can progress to more severe symptoms if not managed effectively. Seizures (Choice A) typically occur later in the withdrawal process and are a more severe symptom. Visual hallucinations (Choice B) usually manifest after tremors and are considered a mid-stage symptom. Delirium tremens (Choice D) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that typically occurs 2-3 days after the last drink, characterized by confusion, disorientation, and severe autonomic hyperactivity.

4. A client with major depressive disorder is being treated with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which client statement indicates that CBT is having a positive effect?

• A. "I understand now that my negative thoughts are not always true."
• B. "I still feel down, but I am able to go to work."
• C. "I have stopped taking my antidepressant medication."
• D. "I avoid situations that make me feel anxious."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). In this statement, the client demonstrates insight into the fact that their negative thoughts may not always be accurate, showing progress in reframing their thoughts. Choice B indicates some improvement in functioning but does not directly relate to the core principles of CBT. Choice C is concerning as abruptly stopping antidepressant medication can be detrimental to the client's well-being. Choice D reflects avoidance behavior, which is typically a target for intervention in CBT rather than a sign of positive progress.

5. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

• A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
• B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
• C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
• D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy indicate the need for gastric lavage. Gastric lavage is a procedure used to remove toxic substances from the stomach in cases where the patient is unresponsive or unable to cooperate. Choice A is incorrect as the time of ingestion alone does not indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice B, although indicating a significant overdose, does not directly necessitate gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as it provides information about the possible psychological motivation for repeated suicide attempts, but it is not directly related to the immediate need for gastric lavage in this scenario.

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