a lpnlvn employed in a mental health unit of a hospital is the leader of a group psychotherapy session the nursess role in the termination stage of gr
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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions

1. In a mental health unit of a hospital, a LPN/LVN is leading a group psychotherapy session. What is the nurse's role in the termination stage of group development?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the termination stage of group development in psychotherapy, the nurse's role is to acknowledge the contributions of each group member. This action helps to close the group on a positive note, reinforcing the therapeutic experience. Choice A, encouraging problem-solving, is more relevant in the earlier stages of group development. Choice B, encouraging the accomplishment of the group's work, is important throughout the group process but is not specific to the termination stage. Choice D, encouraging members to become acquainted with one another, is more aligned with the initial stages of group formation rather than the termination stage.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with OCD is to work with them to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors. This approach helps the client manage their condition effectively without causing undue distress. Allowing the client to engage in compulsive behaviors can reinforce the disorder rather than alleviate it. Encouraging the client to ignore compulsive behaviors does not address the core issue of OCD. While helping the client understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors can be beneficial, actively working to reduce these behaviors is more crucial in the treatment of OCD.

3. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

4. Which statement best demonstrates the nurse's role in ensuring that each client's rights are respected?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement 'Being respectful and concerned will ensure attentiveness to clients' rights' best demonstrates the nurse's role in ensuring that each client's rights are respected. This choice emphasizes the importance of being attentive and considerate towards clients to uphold their rights. Choice A is too general and lacks the direct connection to the nurse's role. Choice B highlights the legal aspect but does not specifically address the nurse's role. Choice D, although true, is not as comprehensive as choice C in describing the nurse's active role in respecting client rights.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client reports experiencing nausea. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Nausea is a common side effect of sertraline, and clients should be reassured that it usually decreases as their body adjusts to the medication." Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice C is a good suggestion to reduce nausea by taking the medication with food but does not address the temporary nature of the side effect. Choice D is unnecessary at this point since nausea is a common side effect that may improve with time.

Similar Questions

The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?
A client in a long-term care facility who has multiple sclerosis is embarrassed about the need to use a wheelchair and the muscle spasms that are readily visible in her legs. Which approach is therapeutic in assisting the client to cope?
A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The client reports feeling restless and unable to sit still. What should the nurse do first?
An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A female client with borderline personality disorder expresses fear of being abandoned by the nursing staff. What is the best nursing intervention?

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