a lpnlvn employed in a mental health unit of a hospital is the leader of a group psychotherapy session the nursess role in the termination stage of gr
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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions

1. In a mental health unit of a hospital, a LPN/LVN is leading a group psychotherapy session. What is the nurse's role in the termination stage of group development?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the termination stage of group development in psychotherapy, the nurse's role is to acknowledge the contributions of each group member. This action helps to close the group on a positive note, reinforcing the therapeutic experience. Choice A, encouraging problem-solving, is more relevant in the earlier stages of group development. Choice B, encouraging the accomplishment of the group's work, is important throughout the group process but is not specific to the termination stage. Choice D, encouraging members to become acquainted with one another, is more aligned with the initial stages of group formation rather than the termination stage.

2. A 27-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. She is demanding and active. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients in the manic phase of bipolar disorder require a structured environment with decreased stimuli to help manage their symptoms. Providing a structured environment with little stimuli (D) can help reduce the risk of escalating behaviors. Scheduling noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone (A) is more appropriate than group activities as excessive stimuli should be avoided. Monitoring decision-making processes (B) is important due to impulsivity in manic phases. Encouraging the client to identify feelings of anger (C) is not the priority in managing manic symptoms, as it is more often associated with depression than bipolar disorder.

3. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

4. An adult female client tells the nurse that though she is afraid her abusive boyfriend might one day kill her, she keeps hoping that he will change. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exploring the client's readiness to discuss the situation is the correct first step. It allows the nurse to assess the client's emotional state, willingness to seek help, and readiness to address the abusive relationship. This approach helps build trust and rapport with the client, paving the way for further interventions. Discussing treatment options for abusive partners (Choice A) may be premature and not well-received if the client is not ready to address the situation. Determining the frequency and type of abuse (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing the client's readiness to talk. Reporting the finding to the police (Choice D) should be done if there is an immediate threat to the client's safety, but exploring the client's readiness to discuss the situation should be the initial step to provide support and intervention.

5. A young adult male with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the psychiatric unit for detoxification. He is agitated, sweating, and reports seeing bugs crawling on the walls. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the prescribed benzodiazepine. This intervention helps manage the client's agitation and hallucinations, which are common symptoms during detoxification from substances. Reassuring the client that the bugs are not real (Choice A) may not be effective in addressing the underlying causes of the hallucinations. Placing the client in a quiet, dark room (Choice C) may help reduce sensory stimulation but does not directly address the client's symptoms. Encouraging the client to express his feelings (Choice D) is important for therapeutic communication but may not be the priority when the client is experiencing severe agitation and hallucinations.

Similar Questions

A client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse assesses the client's mental status. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a client with schizophrenia?
A 20-year-old female client with schizophrenia is scheduled to receive risperidone (Risperdal) 2mg at bedtime. When the nurse attempts to administer the medication, the client states, 'I am not going to take that medicine, and you can't make me.' What action should the nurse take?
A male client with bipolar disorder has not slept or eaten in four days. He paces and becomes increasingly agitated and loud while the nurse talks to his spouse. What intervention is the best for the nurse to implement at this time?
A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?
An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

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