a lpnlvn employed in a mental health unit of a hospital is the leader of a group psychotherapy session the nursess role in the termination stage of gr
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Nursing Elites

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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions

1. In a mental health unit of a hospital, a LPN/LVN is leading a group psychotherapy session. What is the nurse's role in the termination stage of group development?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the termination stage of group development in psychotherapy, the nurse's role is to acknowledge the contributions of each group member. This action helps to close the group on a positive note, reinforcing the therapeutic experience. Choice A, encouraging problem-solving, is more relevant in the earlier stages of group development. Choice B, encouraging the accomplishment of the group's work, is important throughout the group process but is not specific to the termination stage. Choice D, encouraging members to become acquainted with one another, is more aligned with the initial stages of group formation rather than the termination stage.

2. A client, who is on a 30-day commitment to a drug rehabilitation unit, asks the nurse if he can go for a walk on the grounds of the treatment center. When he is told that his privileges do not include walking on the grounds, the client becomes verbally abusive. Which approach will the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: (C) is the correct approach in this situation as it reinforces unit rules, setting clear boundaries and expectations. By reminding the client of the unit rules, the nurse is helping to maintain a safe and structured environment within the drug rehabilitation unit. (A) is unnecessary since the client's behavior does not warrant immediate physical intervention. (B) is not ideal because the client's privileges have already been explained, and suggesting he speak to his healthcare provider may not address the immediate issue. (D) is not appropriate as addressing inappropriate behavior is essential in a therapeutic setting.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day washing his hands. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who excessively washes hands. This approach can help the client understand the underlying reasons for the behavior, address the associated anxiety, and work toward behavior modification. Choices A, allowing the behavior to continue, and D, restricting access to soap and water, do not address the root cause of the behavior and may exacerbate anxiety. Choice B, scheduling specific times for handwashing, does not address the underlying emotional factors contributing to the behavior and may not effectively reduce the client's anxiety.

4. A 27-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. She is demanding and active. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients in the manic phase of bipolar disorder require a structured environment with decreased stimuli to help manage their symptoms. Providing a structured environment with little stimuli (D) can help reduce the risk of escalating behaviors. Scheduling noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone (A) is more appropriate than group activities as excessive stimuli should be avoided. Monitoring decision-making processes (B) is important due to impulsivity in manic phases. Encouraging the client to identify feelings of anger (C) is not the priority in managing manic symptoms, as it is more often associated with depression than bipolar disorder.

5. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

Similar Questions

The nurse documents that a male client with paranoid schizophrenia is delusional. Which statement by the client confirms this assessment?
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A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?
A client with depression is prescribed an SSRI. The client asks, 'Why do I need to take this medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?
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