Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client reports experiencing nausea. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. "You should stop taking the medication immediately."
• B. "Nausea is a common side effect and usually decreases over time."
• C. "Try taking the medication with food to reduce nausea."
• D. "I will inform the healthcare provider to change your medication."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Nausea is a common side effect of sertraline, and clients should be reassured that it usually decreases as their body adjusts to the medication." Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice C is a good suggestion to reduce nausea by taking the medication with food but does not address the temporary nature of the side effect. Choice D is unnecessary at this point since nausea is a common side effect that may improve with time.

2. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

3. A LPN/LVN is performing a follow-up teaching session with a client discharged 1 month ago. The client is taking fluoxetine (Prozac). What information would be important for the nurse to obtain during this client visit regarding the side effects of the medication?

• A. Cardiovascular symptoms
• B. Gastrointestinal dysfunctions
• C. Problems with mouth dryness
• D. Problems with excessive sweating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Gastrointestinal dysfunctions.' Fluoxetine commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, diarrhea, or constipation. These symptoms can significantly impact the client's quality of life and adherence to the medication regimen. Monitoring gastrointestinal issues is crucial for the nurse to ensure the client's well-being and optimize treatment outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cardiovascular symptoms, problems with mouth dryness, and problems with excessive sweating are not typically associated with fluoxetine use and are less likely to be a focus of concern during this client visit.

4. In a mental health unit of a hospital, a LPN/LVN is leading a group psychotherapy session. What is the nurse's role in the termination stage of group development?

• A. Encourage problem solving
• B. Encourage accomplishment of the group's work
• C. Acknowledge the contributions of each group member
• D. Encourage members to become acquainted with one another

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the termination stage of group development in psychotherapy, the nurse's role is to acknowledge the contributions of each group member. This action helps to close the group on a positive note, reinforcing the therapeutic experience. Choice A, encouraging problem-solving, is more relevant in the earlier stages of group development. Choice B, encouraging the accomplishment of the group's work, is important throughout the group process but is not specific to the termination stage. Choice D, encouraging members to become acquainted with one another, is more aligned with the initial stages of group formation rather than the termination stage.

5. Within several days of hospitalization, a client is repeatedly washing the top of the same table. Which initial intervention is best for the nurse to implement to help the client cope with anxiety related to this behavior?

• A. Administer a prescribed PRN antianxiety medication.
• B. Assist the client in identifying stimuli that precipitate the ritualistic activity.
• C. Allow time for the ritualistic behavior, then redirect the client to other activities.
• D. Teach the client relaxation and thought-stopping techniques.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initially, the nurse should allow time for the ritualistic behavior (C) to prevent anxiety. Administering an antianxiety medication (A) may help reduce the client's anxiety temporarily but will not address the underlying issue of ineffective coping mechanisms leading to the behavior. While assisting the client in identifying triggers (B) is important for long-term therapy, the immediate focus should be on managing the behavior. Teaching relaxation and thought-stopping techniques (D) is beneficial but might be more effective once the client is more stable and receptive to learning new coping strategies.

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