HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health 2023
1. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
- A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
- B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
- C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
- D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.
2. For a female client with major depressive disorder reporting feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to join a support group.
- B. Refer the client for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT).
- C. Assess the client's risk for suicide.
- D. Suggest the client participate in daily exercise.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's risk for suicide. When a client expresses feelings of hopelessness and helplessness, it indicates a high risk of self-harm or suicide. Therefore, the priority intervention should be to assess the client's safety. Encouraging the client to join a support group (choice A) may be beneficial but not the priority at this time. Referring the client for cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) (choice B) and suggesting daily exercise (choice D) are important interventions in managing depression but assessing the risk for suicide takes precedence due to the immediate safety concern.
3. A client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is pacing the hallway and talking rapidly. What is the best intervention for the nurse?
- A. Encourage the client to join a group activity.
- B. Offer the client a high-calorie snack and a drink.
- C. Direct the client to a quieter area of the unit.
- D. Instruct the client to sit down and relax.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients often exhibit increased activity and may burn a lot of energy. Offering a high-calorie snack and a drink is the best intervention as it helps maintain their nutritional needs while allowing them to continue their activity. Encouraging the client to join a group activity (Choice A) may further stimulate their behavior. Directing the client to a quieter area (Choice C) might not address their energy expenditure. Instructing the client to sit down and relax (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase.
4. Physical examination of a 6-year-old reveals several bite marks in various locations on his body. X-ray examination reveals healed fractures of the ribs. The mother tells the nurse that her child is always having accidents. Which initial response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. I need to inform the healthcare provider about your child's tendency to be accident-prone.
- B. Tell me more specifically about your child's accidents.
- C. I must report these injuries to the authorities because they do not seem accidental.
- D. Boys this age always seem to require more supervision and can be quite accident-prone.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: (B) seeks more information in a non-threatening manner to gather additional details about the child's accidents. This response allows the nurse to explore the situation further without making assumptions. (A) fails to address the concerning findings and instead focuses on informing the healthcare provider. (C) jumps to conclusions without gathering more information, potentially causing unnecessary distress to the family. (D) dismisses the seriousness of the situation by attributing the injuries to common accidents for boys, missing the opportunity to delve deeper into the issue.
5. On admission assessment, the nurse is obtaining subjective data about a client's sexual and reproductive status. The client states, 'I don't want to discuss this; it's private and personal.' Which response by the LVN/LPN is the most therapeutic?
- A. I'd hate being asked these sorts of questions too, but it's a necessary part of providing you with the best care.
- B. This is difficult for you to speak about, but I need this information from you in order to perform a complete assessment.
- C. I am a professional registered nurse, and, as such, I'll have you know that all your information is certainly kept confidential.
- D. I know that some of these questions are difficult for you, but, as a professional nurse, I am obligated to respect your confidentiality.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D. Respecting the client's privacy while acknowledging the difficulty of the situation and explaining the professional obligation to maintain confidentiality is the most therapeutic approach. This response shows empathy, understanding, and a commitment to confidentiality, which can help build trust and encourage the client to open up. Choices A, B, and C do not effectively address the client's concerns or emphasize the importance of confidentiality in a sensitive manner, making them less therapeutic responses in this situation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access