a female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days but now is defecating frequent small amount of liquid stool which action should th
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1. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. Small, frequent liquid stools following constipation may indicate a fecal impaction. This intervention is crucial to assess and address a potential impaction promptly. Choices B, increasing fluid intake, and C, providing a high-fiber diet, may help with bowel regularity in general cases, but they don't directly address the urgent concern of a possible impaction. Choice D, administering a stool softener, is not appropriate as the first action when a fecal impaction is suspected; it could worsen the condition by causing further liquid stool output without addressing the impaction.

2. A client is admitted with hepatitis A (HAV) and dehydration. Subjective symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, and malaise. What additional assessment should the nurse expect to find during the preicteric phase?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the preicteric phase of hepatitis A, the nurse should expect to find RUQ (right upper quadrant) abdominal pain. This pain is common in the early phase of hepatitis A and is associated with liver inflammation. Clay-colored stools (Choice B) are typically seen in the icteric phase when there is a lack of bile flow. Icteric sclera (Choice C) refers to yellowing of the eyes, which is a characteristic of the icteric phase. Pruritus (Choice D), which is itching of the skin, is also more commonly associated with the icteric phase when bile salts accumulate in the skin.

3. A female client with borderline personality disorder is being discharged today. During morning rounds, the client complains about the aloofness of the night shift nurse and expresses joy to see the nurse on duty. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client’s dichotomous tendency?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response as it acknowledges the client's feelings while exploring their concerns. By asking which nurse was acting aloof, the nurse shows understanding and allows the client to express their feelings further. This response validates the client's emotions and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice B focuses on a future action without addressing the immediate concern at hand. Choice C seeks clarification on the night nurse's behavior, which is a good approach but lacks the personal touch of Choice A. Choice D shifts the focus away from the client's current feelings and concerns, missing the opportunity to address the dichotomous thinking displayed by the client.

4. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client’s blood pressure cannot be measured because the client has casts on both arms and is unable to be turned to the prone position for blood pressure measurement in the legs. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client cannot have their blood pressure measured due to specific circumstances such as casts on both arms, the nurse should document the reason why the blood pressure cannot be obtained accurately. This documentation is crucial for maintaining a clear record of the client's condition and for continuity of care. Advising the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained (Choice A) does not address the current inability to measure the blood pressure. Estimating the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of radial pulses (Choice B) is not a reliable method for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Demonstrating how to palpate the popliteal pulse (Choice C) is irrelevant in this situation as it does not provide a solution for accurately measuring the blood pressure.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.' This is the most crucial intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) on a heparin protocol. Heparin, being an anticoagulant, increases the risk of bleeding as a side effect. Therefore, close monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, is essential to prevent severe complications. While assessing blood pressure and heart rate (Choice B) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Measuring calf girth (Choice C) may help evaluate edema but is not as vital as observing for bleeding complications. Encouraging mobilization (Choice D) is beneficial for preventing complications like pulmonary embolism, but in this scenario, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk associated with anticoagulant therapy.

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