a preschool teacher notifies the school nurse that child a has bitten child b on the arm child bs skin is broken but is not bleeding what action shoul
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2024

1. What should be the school nurse's first action after being notified that Child A has bitten Child B on the arm, resulting in broken skin but no bleeding?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the school nurse to take in this situation is to wash Child B’s arm thoroughly with soap and water. Washing the wound immediately is crucial to reduce the risk of infection from the bite. Applying antibiotic cream may come after cleaning the wound. Determining Child A's medical history or checking Child B's tetanus status is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a bite wound.

2. The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign this newly graduate practical nurse? A client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is option A because this client is the most stable and requires less supervision. Assigning a client whose discharge has been delayed due to a postoperative infection to the newly graduate practical nurse would be appropriate during a busy day as they are likely to need routine care and monitoring rather than immediate intensive interventions. Option B involves a client with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes on a sliding scale for insulin administration, which requires close monitoring and prompt intervention, making it a less suitable assignment for a new graduate who may need more guidance. Option C, a newly admitted patient with a head injury requiring frequent assessments, would demand a higher level of vigilance and expertise, which may be challenging for a new graduate nurse to handle without adequate supervision. Option D, a patient receiving IV heparin regulated based on protocol, involves complex medication management that may be too advanced for a new graduate nurse without sufficient oversight.

3. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.

4. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a client. What is the most appropriate site to use for an IM injection in an adult?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vastus lateralis muscle. The vastus lateralis muscle is a recommended site for IM injections in adults due to its size and accessibility. The dorsal gluteal muscle is not recommended for IM injections in adults due to the proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, increasing the risk of injury. The rectus femoris muscle is not a common site for IM injections in adults. The deltoid muscle is typically used for IM injections in small-volume medications or vaccines, especially in adults.

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