Nursing Elites

1. What should be the school nurse's first action after being notified that Child A has bitten Child B on the arm, resulting in broken skin but no bleeding?

• A. Apply antibiotic cream to Child B’s arm immediately
• B. Determine if Child A has a history of Hepatitis C or HIV
• C. Determine the date of Child B’s latest tetanus booster
• D. Wash Child B’s arm thoroughly with soap and water

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the school nurse to take in this situation is to wash Child B’s arm thoroughly with soap and water. Washing the wound immediately is crucial to reduce the risk of infection from the bite. Applying antibiotic cream may come after cleaning the wound. Determining Child A's medical history or checking Child B's tetanus status is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a bite wound.

2. When assessing a client several hours after surgery, the nurse observes that the client grimaces and guards the incision while moving in bed. The client is diaphoretic, has a radial pulse rate of 110 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min. What assessment should the nurse perform first?

• A. Apical heart rate
• B. IV site and fluids
• C. Pain scale
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client’s grimacing and guarding suggest pain; assessing the pain scale is crucial for addressing the discomfort. Pain management is a priority to ensure the client's well-being and comfort. Checking the apical heart rate, IV site and fluids, or temperature can be important but addressing the client's pain takes precedence in this scenario. The elevated pulse rate and respiratory rate could be indicative of pain, making the pain scale assessment essential to guide appropriate interventions.

3. To reduce the risk of symptoms exacerbation for a client with multiple sclerosis (MS), which instructions should the nurse include in the client’s discharge plan? (Select all that apply).

• A. Practice relaxation exercises
• B. Limit fluids to avoid bladder distention
• C. Space activities to allow for rest periods
• D. Avoid persons with infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge plan for a client with MS to reduce symptom exacerbation is practicing relaxation exercises. Relaxation exercises can help manage MS symptoms by reducing stress. Limiting fluids to avoid bladder distention is not appropriate as adequate hydration is essential for overall health and helps prevent complications like urinary tract infections. While spacing activities to allow for rest periods can be beneficial for general well-being, it is not directly related to symptom exacerbation in MS. Avoiding persons with infections is important to prevent infections, but it is not specifically targeted at reducing MS symptom exacerbation.

4. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

5. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

Similar Questions